‘Deciphering The Gospels Proves Jesus Never Existed’ review: Intro/Chapter One


‘Deciphering the Gospels’ argues the case for Jesus mythicism, which is the view that Jesus never really existed on earth but was a mythical figure in the same way as Hercules or Dionysus. (The author, R. G. Price, is not the same person as Robert Price, also a Jesus mythicist author.) I’m an atheist who holds the opposing (and more mainstream) view that Jesus did exist, as a normal, non-divine, human being. I’m therefore reviewing Price’s book to discuss his arguments and my reasons for disagreeing.

The first post in this book review is here. All subsequent posts will be linked at the end of that post as they go up.

 

Introduction

I gave a brief summary of the introduction in my first post in the review and had planned to leave it at that, but I’ve realised that there are a couple of key points here that do need further examination; the questions of where this idea of a mythical crucified Messiah came from and where it went.

Price explains, in the introduction, how he believes the cult arose:

What set the Jesus cult apart was their belief that the kingdom established by the messiah would not be on earth, but rather it would be in heaven. They believed that the material world was hopelessly corrupt and that the “kingdom of God” could never be established on earth. Thus, they believed that an immaterial heavenly messiah would be required to destroy the evil material world and establish a perfect kingdom in heaven. The creation of an immaterial heavenly kingdom required an immaterial heavenly messiah.

So far, so good. While this would have been a very fringe belief among Jews of the time, not to mention flat-out ignoring the plain meaning of some prophecies, those are hardly factors that rule out this possibility; there are people in any time and place who are happy to adopt very fringe beliefs and to ignore evidence (as their society would have regarded prophecies) to the contrary. So, it is at least plausible that a group at the time could have adopted such a belief. Here, however, are two major questions to which we still need answers:

1. How would such a group have developed the belief that their messiah had been crucified in heaven?

The Jewish idea of the Messiah (a word which literally means ‘anointed’ and was also used more generally for any ruling figure) came originally from scriptural passages prophesying a wondrous future in which the Jews, freed from all oppression, would live in peace and plenty under the rule of a descendant of King David. It bore absolutely no relationship to the later Christian concept of the Messiah being an uber-sacrifice for humanity’s sins. While the Messiah’s job description was vague enough that it allowed for all sorts of interpretations, and technically didn’t exclude the possibility of him being crucified and resurrected on the way to the glorious future in which he ruled over Israel, that’s still a heck of a tangent for someone to have come up with. Any story of Christianity’s origins does need to account for how the early Christians made that leap.

Under a historical-Jesus theory, this is fairly straightforward to explain. If Christianity started with a real man who was crucified, leaving his adoring followers trying to reconcile the cognitive dissonance between their fervent Messianic hopes and the dismal reality facing them, then it’s perfectly plausible that they could have come up with explanations that wove the inescapable brutal fact of their leader’s crucifixion into their theology as part of their God’s grand plan. But, minus an actual crucifixion happening to an actual Messianic claimant, why would a group of Messianic believers spontaneously come up with the idea of their Messiah being crucified? How likely is it that one group would come up with two completely different radical departures from usual concepts of the Messiah (heavenly Messiah and crucified Messiah)? And, even if some Jews somehow came up with the unprecedented idea of their Messiah needing to be a sin sacrifice like the goats and sheep that were taken to the Temple altar, why in the world would they conclude that this sacrifice must take place via a loathed and stigmatised method of execution rather than via known, familiar, accepted methods of animal sacrifice?

2. How did knowledge of this group disappear so thoroughly from church history?

According to Price, the stories about a historical Jesus got started because Mark wrote an allegory which was mistaken for an actual book of prophecies, the other evangelists built on and embroidered the story, and people who’d read these works and mistaken them for accounts of real events somehow formed a religion based on them. So… how in the world, if you’ll forgive the unintentional pun, did it play out when they met the existing groups of Jesus-followers and realised that they taught that he’d never been on earth at all? Even if enough of the new believers clung to their version and managed to start a new cult that overtook the old, we’d still surely expect some records of the previous belief, even if only in the form of teachings from the new cult of why the old one was heretical and mistaken.

 

I don’t believe Price covers either of these two questions in the book. To be fair, it’s some months since I read it and I was rather skimming through on my initial read, so perhaps I’ve missed something; I’ll keep an eye out as I continue the review, and also, of course, look for Price’s thoughts in the comments. Meanwhile, I think that does complete the questions regarding the introduction, so on to Chapter One.

 

Chapter One: Deciphering the Gospel Called Mark

Price devotes the first two chapters of this book to the cornerstone of his theory; his belief that all of the gospel of Mark (apart from some filler) can be shown to have been based on other sources. He believes that from this we can deduce that the gospel of Mark (for which I’ll henceforth use the standard abbreviation gMark, for convenience) is entirely a fictional allegory. This chapter lists multiple examples of Markan stories that Price believes to have been derived from Jewish scriptures (or Jewish culture, in the case of the twelve apostles supposedly symbolising the twelve tribes), and Chapter Two does the same with examples of stories that Price believes to have been derived from Paul’s letters. For those interested in checking this out in more detail, he also has a chronologically ordered, and more comprehensive, list of all his examples online in his essay The Gospel of Mark as Reaction and Allegory, in which he goes through gMark explaining how each part of it in turn fits with his theory.

As I drafted out the comments I wanted to make about Chapter One, I found my reply fell into four parts. The first part looks at the logic underlying Price’s argument, the second at his claim that all the important points of gMark can be shown to have been derived from elsewhere, the third at a couple of Price’s specific examples, and the fourth at his theories about Mark’s motivation for writing. I’ll leave the last three of those for subsequent posts, and cover the first part here.

Price’s argument, as I understand it, can be summarised thusly:

  • All of gMark consists of symbolic or allegorical stories derived from other sources.
  • Therefore, all of gMark is fictional rather than factual.
  • Therefore, the protagonist in gMark – Jesus – is also fictional.

(He then goes on to argue, in subsequent chapters, that as the other gospels are derived from gMark this means that those are also entirely fictional evidence. I’ll discuss that when we get there.)

Edited to add: Price has now clarified, in comment #2 on this post, that my third point is incorrect: ‘Not true. Nowhere did I state that… I fully agree that merely showing that Mark is ahistorical does not prove that Jesus didn’t exist, and never made such a claim.’ I’m glad to have this clarified, and apologise to him for misunderstanding his argument. Since his book and online articles do come across as suggesting that ahistoricity of gMark would prove or at least provide evidence of ahistoricity of Jesus, I’ll leave the rest of this article up as written, since I think it’s worth clarifying that that is a logically incorrect conclusion to draw; however, the apparent logic flaw was not intended by Price and does not represent what he actually believes.

This chapter and the next one are both devoted to proving the first point on the list, by means of illustrating it with multiple examples. He has, overall, put an impressive amount of detailed and dedicated work into demonstrating the first part of his argument. Unfortunately, he seems to have assumed the subsequent parts of the argument rather than demonstrating them; his assumption seems to be that, if the stories in gMark are all allegorical fiction, then it must automatically follow that the protagonist is fictional. I can’t see that that follows.

Let’s suppose for a moment that Price is absolutely right about his main claim; that Mark did indeed mean his gospel entirely as a work of allegory and that he derived every single story he wrote from another source for this purpose. Why would this automatically mean that the character on which he based his story must also be fictional? It’s perfectly possible to write allegorical stories about a real character.

In fact, even according to Price’s own theory, this would have been precisely what Mark believed he was doing. Price believes Mark to have been a member of the early church (the Pauline branch), which would mean, according to Price’s theory, that Mark believed in Jesus as a spiritual being whose existence was entirely in heaven rather than on earth. While such a Jesus would obviously be fictional from our perspective, it’s important to remember that the people holding such a belief would see Jesus as real. If that had been Mark’s belief, then from his perspective he would have been writing about a being who – while existing in what was effectively another dimension – was nonetheless every bit as real as people on earth. If we’re assuming Mark was writing an allegory about a real (from his perspective) heavenly being, why should we assume he wouldn’t write an allegory about a real earthly being?

Ironically, when I started looking at Price’s examples in detail, I realised that the first example in this chapter perfectly demonstrates that Mark’s apparently symbolic stories can still refer to a real person:

I’d like to first focus on one simple element of the story to demonstrate that this is a fictional story, crafted by the author with the intent that readers use the literary allusions to understand the story. In the Gospel called Mark, John the Baptist represents Elijah. Knowing this is important for understanding the story. How are readers supposed to know that John the Baptist represents Elijah in the story? Readers are told this at the very beginning of the story through the use of literary allusion. In fact, readers are clued in to the fact that the story will parallel much of 1 and 2 Kings right from the beginning.

John the Baptist is, I agree, linked with Elijah in Mark’s account, in a way that could be symbolic. John the Baptist is also discussed in some detail by the well-known Roman historian Flavius Josephus, as a lengthy aside in Josephus’s account of the destruction of Herod Antipas’s army… which gives us solid evidence that JtB actually existed.

Of course, it’s worth examining other possible explanations for that Josephan passage. After all, we know that a different volume of the same work contains at least some lines about Jesus that clearly weren’t written by Josephus, and are now universally accepted as having been interpolated by a later (unknown) Christian who wanted to get their own beliefs about Jesus in there(1). So it’s possible that a Christian scribe might also have wanted to interpolate a passage about John the Baptist. Could this have been what happened here?

It’s certainly plausible that a Christian scribe might have wanted to insert passages that espoused his beliefs. What doesn’t make sense, however, is the theory that a Christian scribe would have inserted this particular passage. Not only is it different enough from the gospel accounts of JtB that it clearly wasn’t just drawn from them, it’s also included in the text specifically to make the point that some of the Jews blamed Herod’s loss of this battle on his unjust killing of John. I think we can safely say that a Christian scribe interpolating their faith-based opinions about Herod Antipas would have focused rather more on Herod’s rejection of Jesus, who doesn’t even get a mention in this passage. I think it therefore reasonable to rule out the theory that this passage was a Christian interpolation.

Of course, a scribe might have had some motivation other than religious belief to interpolate comments, and it is just about possible that someone could have had some motivation of which we’re unaware for interpolating a long passage about a relatively minor historical figure whose death, by that point, would have been many decades previously. (I know of no serious historians who believe this to have been the case, but I’m trying to be as open-minded as possible here.) However, even that outside possibility makes no sense unless John the Baptist at least existed in the first place. If he was only a minor fictional character in a rather obscure religious work, why on earth would anyone believe that the Jews were blaming Herod’s defeat on the murder of this non-existent character, much less write a long passage claiming this to be the case and inventing details that weren’t in the original story?

In short, the existence of this passage in our works of Josephus is good enough evidence to believe in John the Baptist’s existence. (For anyone interested in reading a much more detailed discussion of the interpolation theory – which also concludes that this passage is genuine – Peter Kirby has written a detailed post on the subject.) Regardless of whether Jesus existed, we can at least conclude that John did.

This, of course, tells us nothing whatsoever about Jesus’s existence. However, it does give us a clear example of a story of Mark’s that appears to be (and might well have been intended as) an allegory… but is nevertheless demonstrably about a real person. And as such, it blows a major hole through any theory that ‘allegory’ automatically equates to ‘fictional protagonist’. Which means that, right out of the gate, there is a fundamental problem with Price’s entire theory.

 

(1) The interpolation in Josephus is a fiercely controversial subject, so I shall take a second to clarify: No, we do not know whether or not all of the Testimonium Flavium is interpolated. It might be, it might not be; there is significant legitimate difference of opinion on that point even among experts, and I lack the knowledge or the interest to launch into that particular discussion in any detail. The point is, no-one seriously doubts that at least some of it was, and that, as such, it’s an excellent example of the fact that scribes could, potentially, interpolate bits of information into texts to satisfy their own agendas.

Comments

  1. Allison says

    Maybe it’s because I’m not much of an atheist, but I’ve never figured out why anybody goes to so much trouble to “prove” that “Jesus never existed.” What actual difference does the existence or non-existence of a putative Jewish wonder-worker who inspired a sect of Judaism that eventually broke off to become a world religion make?

    It’s not like it has any bearing on whether a God (however you conceive of her) exists, or (assuming she exists) what she is like or what she wants people to do.

    Moreover, Christianity most definitely exists, and its history is for the most part documented beyond reasonable doubt, and I seriously doubt that any “proof” that there was no flesh-and-blood person at the beginning would make much difference to either believers or the non-believers.

    It’s rather like the attempts to prove that Wm. Shakespeare didn’t write the plays and sonnets ascribed to him, but rather someone else did.

    The thing is, if someone ever did come up with a proof that a Jesus did exist — or did not exist — the whole cottage industry of arguments for and against would run the risk of collapsing. (But of course, people can always invent a way around any evidence that inconveniences them, so the debate would rage on in any case.)

    • db says

      Allison says: I’ve never figured out why anybody goes to so much trouble to “prove” that “Jesus never existed.”

      Leading mythicism scholars do not not assert that the historicity of Jesus is a black or white scenario, R. M. Price writes, “I don’t think you can ‘prove’ either that a historical Jesus existed or that he didn’t. What you can do . . . is to construe the same old evidence in a new way that makes more natural, less contrived, sense” [Price, Robert M. (2018). “Foreword” ap. R. G. Price 2018, p. ix.]; and Richard Carrier gives a 1:3 (~33%) chance that Jesus existed.

    • db says

      Per Edward van der Kaaij: “. . . I am trying to prove that the historical Jesus did not exist, because I think that the view that Jesus did exist is harmful to understanding the Bible.” Cf. Godfrey, Neil (12 March 2015). “Mythicism Making Christianity More Meaningful”. Vridar.

      “edward van der kaaij”. De ongemakkelijke waarheid van het christendom (in Dutch).

      Birth of Jesus
      Last week I indicated that there is only one source of the historical Jesus, and that is the Mark Gospel. You will find detailed proof of this in my book. [De ongemakkelijke waarheid van het christendom. de echte Jezus onthuld]
      […]
      I am aware that this is a striking proposition and that many believe that a minister with such an opinion places himself outside the Christian faith. That is why I say with great emphasis: I am a Christian believer, the Bible is for me – and according to the church order – source and norm of the Christian faith. And that is precisely why every believer must agree with me that good Bible interpretation is decisive.

    • Dr Sarah says

      @ Allison:

      ‘Maybe it’s because I’m not much of an atheist, but I’ve never figured out why anybody goes to so much trouble to “prove” that “Jesus never existed.” ‘

      Same reason people go to a lot of trouble to debate whether or not Richard III really killed the Princes in the Tower, or to dress up for Civil War re-enactments, or… name your hobby, really. IOW, we find it interesting and fun. If it doesn’t happen to be what floats your boat, then no worries; hope one of the other posts available on FTB today does catch your interest.

  2. rationalrevolution says

    HI Sarah,

    I think you’ve put the cart before the horse in a few places. What strikes me is that your approach to this topic is very similar to the Creationist approach to evolution. It is common for Creationists to begin their rebuttal to evolution something along the lines of, “But where did life come from? You can’t prove that God didn’t create life. Evolution can’t be true, because you can’t prove how life started, therefor only God could have created life, therefore evolution can’t be true.”

    This seems to be the approach you’ve taken.

    “Any story of Christianity’s origins does need to account for how the early Christians made that leap.”

    Indeed, and I will be addressing just that in my next book, which is actually a history book, while this is really just Biblical analysis. But this question is not actually important to the matter at hand, just as determining how life started is not important for showing that life has developed and is developing through a process of evolution.

    The evidence for evolution is clear and demonstrable, and that may lead us to the further question of how the process got started, but we don’t need to prove how it started in order to demonstrate that it is occurring and has occurred for millions of years.

    As for your second question (which is still putting the cart before horse): “How did knowledge of this group disappear so thoroughly from church history?”

    Chapter 5 is actually dedicated to this very question. Quite simply, and this is not something that I’m just saying, this is actually well established, #1 there was no continuous development of the religion. #2 there were dozens of “heretical” sects by the early 2nd century, many of which believed that Jesus was purely spiritual, some of which believed that he never came into this world at all, while others believed that he made an appearance on earth as a spirit only. These views were in fact discussed in detail by the proto-orthodox Roman Christians and denounced because such views contradicted their reading of the Gospels.

    It is clear, as I show in Chapters 4 and 5, that all knowledge of Jesus the man comes from the Gospels and nowhere else. The Gospels always were the one and only source of information about Jesus. There was no transfer of knowledge about Jesus from any community to founders of Christianity. The founders of Christianity were Romans whose sole knowledge of Jesus came from writings of unknown sources. Indeed every single writing in the New Testament is of unknown origin and was never known even to the earliest commentators on them. These were found writings, for which the Roman interpreters of the writings had no actual context, and indeed the Roman founders of Christianity stated very plainly that the Jews didn’t understand their own writings which was why Jews didn’t accept Jesus, because they couldn’t understand their own scriptures, only Greek and Roman Christians could understand them.

    “his assumption seems to be that, if the stories in gMark are all allegorical fiction, then it must automatically follow that the protagonist is fictional.”

    Not true. Nowhere did I state that. This is a twelve chapter book. It takes all twelve chapters, or at least 10, to make the case. I fully agree that merely showing that Mark is ahistorical does not prove that Jesus didn’t exist, and never made such a claim.

    “which gives us solid evidence that JtB actually existed.”

    I wouldn’t say it’s solid, but it’s also irrelevant. We can easily assume that JtB was real. So were Peter, James, John, Pilate, and likely others in the story. The point being made is not that any of the names for the characters in question represented real people, but that the narrative is a concocted one. I can write an entirely fictional narrative about George Washington. The fact that a man named George Washington existed doesn’t make my narrative real.

    The point being demonstrated was showing how the author was using literary references to craft an intricate and allegorical narrative. The point of that, is showing that the narrative was invented by the writer, and that it is not a product of “oral tradition”. That’s the point, showing that the narrative is a product of literary invention and showing how the author made use of symbolism and literary references in the story.

    Most of the rest of your post goes into a digression on Josephus, which is beside the point.

    Here is what I would like to know, in terms of a review of Chapter 1. Did you learn anything from Chapter 1? Did you come away from Chapter 1 with a different perspective on the narrative from Mark? Did you come away with an appreciation for the craftsman ship of the author of the story? Were you impressed with the sophistication of how the author must have crafted these scenes? Did you see why I conclude that the entire narrative must have been invented after the First Jewish-Roman War? Do you understand the role of the War in the narrative and in my analysis?

    By the way, here is a very interesting thread on Deciphering the Gospels on a Dutch Forethought forum: https://www.freethinker.nl/forum/viewtopic.php?f=31&t=17878

    I was very impressed by the caliber of their discussion and it includes critical points, many of which I agree with myself.

    • db says

      rationalrevolution says: “[The point] is showing that the narrative was invented by the writer, and that it is not a product of “oral tradition”.”

      • So one can reject the simpler and demonstrable: “the narrative was invented by the writer” and plump for: oral traditions, that cannot be scrutinized, that changed over time, and that may well have been made up from whole cloth.

      Per Thomas Brodie, “Interjecting an unpredictable chain of communication into a period of less than a lifetime has the effect not of promoting claims to historicity, but of dissipating them.” [“Oral Tradition Is Unnecessary to Explain the Gospels”. Vridar. 26 October 2012.]

    • Dr Sarah says

      @rationalrevolution:

      Hi, R.G.!

      ‘What strikes me is that your approach to this topic is very similar to the Creationist approach to evolution.’

      I don’t think that’s the case. The issue with creationism isn’t that it points out problems with a theory; it’s that it proposes a solution (God did it) which is so vague as to be essentially unfalsifiable, while making no attempt to look for mechanisms beyond that. If pointing out problems with a theory were an issue in and of itself, scientists wouldn’t be able to debate competing theories, since a significant part of that consists of showing problems with one theory that are better explained by another.

      ‘Indeed, and I will be addressing just that in my next book’

      Ah, good!

      ‘But this question is not actually important to the matter at hand’

      Ooooookayyyyy… in that case, I’m afraid you’ve lost me here. I thought the matter at hand was whether Jesus ever existed as a real person or not. If that’s not what you see the matter at hand as being, what do you see it as? If that is what you see the matter in hand as being, how is it unimportant to ask which of those two theories (Jesus existed or Jesus didn’t) better explains different points?

      ‘The evidence for evolution is clear and demonstrable, and that may lead us to the further question of how the process got started, but we don’t need to prove how it started in order to demonstrate that it is occurring and has occurred for millions of years.’

      I recognise that it can be a mistake to take analogies too literally, but in this case we are discussing how the process of Christianity got started (i.e. with a flesh-and-blood or with a mythical Jesus), and that was what I asked about, so I’m still at a loss as to how a question regarding this isn’t important to the discussion.

      ‘As for your second question […] Chapter 5 is actually dedicated to this very question.’

      Ah, good! I’ll read it a lot more carefully this time around, and will leave further discussion of the question until I get there.

      ‘There was no transfer of knowledge about Jesus from any community to founders of Christianity. The founders of Christianity were Romans whose sole knowledge of Jesus came from writings of unknown sources.’

      I’d argue that the main founder of Christianity in the form in which it got passed down through the Gentiles is Paul. Still, can discuss that further when I get to those chapters.

      ‘I fully agree that merely showing that Mark is ahistorical does not prove that Jesus didn’t exist, and never made such a claim.’

      Not directly, no, but I still found that to be the strong impression that comes through from your writing. In the preface to your book, you put great weight on your investigations and conclusions regarding gMark and then make only passing mention of ‘researching other aspects of the Jesus story during this time, such as historical references to Jesus by non-Christian writers’ before stating that you had now concluded that Jesus was highly unlikely to have existed. In your online article ‘The Gospel of Mark as Reaction and Allegory’, you state ‘I will here argue that the author of the Gospel of Mark was writing a fictional story and that the author himself knew that Jesus was not a real person, but rather the author was using Jesus as a fictional character in an intentionally fictional and allegorical narrative’; later in the article, writing about your conclusions about how gMark was written, you follow them up with ‘The result being the acknowledgement that none of the story elements of the Gospel of Mark are based on reality, they are all based on other writings, which were themselves not based on any “life of Jesus”.’

      Now, fair dos, I think I did overstate it when I said that you seemed to have concluded from gMark that it ‘must automatically follow that the protagonist is fictional’. I apologise for that. But it did sound to me, and still sounds to me, as though your work on gMark at least left you very strongly inclined towards that belief, and that the rest of the reading you did was more about confirming what you already believed. If that isn’t the case, you might want to redo those passages. In the meantime, thanks for clarifying that this isn’t what you believe, and I’ll amend my post to add that I was wrong about this.

      ‘Most of the rest of your post goes into a digression on Josephus, which is beside the point.’

      I agree; I only included that to fend off the inevitable claims of ‘but that passage in Josephus is clearly an interpolation!’ that seem to follow any mention of Josephus in these debates. (Oh, look; got that claim anyway. Quelle surprise.)

      ‘Did you learn anything from Chapter 1?’

      I learned that the Jewish-Roman war started in Galilee, if that’s any good…

      ‘Did you come away from Chapter 1 with a different perspective on the narrative from Mark?’

      Not really, no. The idea that Mark based at least some of his gospel on other sources isn’t a new one to me. The idea that he based all of it on other sources is one that I’m afraid I still don’t agree with, for reasons I’ll discuss further in the next two posts.

      ‘Did you come away with an appreciation for the craftsman ship of the author of the story? Were you impressed with the sophistication of how the author must have crafted these scenes?’

      Unfortunately, the links you’ve made and the conclusions you’ve drawn from them are so tenuous that if I did agree with you that Mark intended them that way then I’d be very unimpressed indeed with his literary skills.

      ‘Did you see why I conclude that the entire narrative must have been invented after the First Jewish-Roman War?’

      You’re concluding that because you’ve reached a conclusion about Mark’s intentions in writing the story that I don’t think is backed up at all by the gospel itself. (I think it’s entirely plausible that the narrative was written after the war; in fact, I’d say that this is more likely than not to have been the case. I just don’t agree that ‘the entire narrative must have been invented’.)

      ‘Do you understand the role of the War in the narrative and in my analysis?’

      Your analysis concludes, among other things, that a) the war is being presented as God’s punishment of the Jews and that b) the punishment is for their supposed failure to live in harmony with Gentiles. I would agree that a) is plausible (I think gMark could have been written either before or after the war; if written after, I agree that this is the coming catastrophe referred to in the narrative and that it’s being presented as a punishment) and I would disagree with b), as I agree with more mainstream claims that the narrative presents this punishment as being for the supposed failure of Jews to recognise Jesus as the Messiah. I don’t think you’ve made a good case for b), which is something I’ll address in the fourth post, as planned.

      • rationalrevolution says

        “I thought the matter at hand was whether Jesus ever existed as a real person or not.”

        That’s the ultimate question, but its not the issue at hand. The issue at hand is whether the Gospel narratives are historical or not. It is establishing if we can determine what the inspiration for the narrative elements of the Gospels stories are.

        Can we establish that the Gospels narratives are in fact inspired y the life of a person named Jesus? Can we establish that the Gospel narratives are inspired by anything other than the life of a person named Jesus?

        The whole point of the book is establishing that we can determine what the Gospels narratives are inspired by, and we can prove that they are not inspired by the life of a person named Jesus. So that’s the point, establishing what the sources and inspiration is for the Gospels narratives. What I’m establishing is that Gospel narratives are not based on the life of a person named Jesus.

        “we are discussing how the process of Christianity got started”

        Actually we aren’t, certainly not at this point in chapter one. What we are discussing is the basis of the Gospel narratives.Do we have reason to believe that the Gospels are describing a real person or not? The case I lay out is that, regardless of whether some Jesus person existed or not, we can establish that the Gospels narratives are not in any way based on the life of some Jesus person, because we can see that the Gospels narratives are based on entirely different things.

        As I discuss in the example that I linked, clearly the mainstream view is that the various scenes in the Gospels are based on accounts of real things that a real person named Jesus did. What I’m presenting in chapter one is the evidence that this is not true.

        “I’d argue that the main founder of Christianity in the form in which it got passed down through the Gentiles is Paul.”

        Of course, which is a main point of this book. Everything that’s attributed to Jesus actually came from Paul. But Paul never used the term “Christian” and Paul didn’t establish any of the tenets of Christianity.

        “Christianity” is a set of tenets established by readers of the Gospels and the letters of Paul, based on assumptions about what those writings mean. I discuss the Nicene Creed in chapter 5, which is basically the basis of Christianity. None of those points come from Paul, and we have no evidence that Paul believed the points laid out in the Nicene Creed.

        “you put great weight on your investigations and conclusions regarding gMark”

        True, and it is important, but its not enough by itself of course to prove that Jesus didn’t exist. It is a very important part of the puzzle, but its not the whole puzzle.

        Let’s just take two scenarios:

        Scenario 1:
        1) The Gospel of Mark is the first account of the life of Jesus that was written.
        2) The Gospel of Mark is shown to be an account based on documents and stories about a real person named Jesus.
        3) The Gospels of Matthew and Luke both borrow from Mark, but also include material from independent sources such as “Q” that can reasonably be assume to trace back to sayings of Jesus.
        4) The Gospel of John is a fully independent account of Jesus.
        5) The letters of Paul are yet another independent account from a member of the later community, which reflects an independent account of the same teachings of Jesus recorded in the Gospels.

        Scenario 2:
        1) The Gospel of Mark is the first account of the life of Jesus that was written.
        2) The Gospel of Mark is shown to be a fictional allegory that is based on Jewish scriptures and the letters of Paul.
        3) The letters of Paul are not an independent attestation to teachings independently recorded in the Gospels, actually the teachings of Jesus in the Gospels are copied from the letters of Paul. The similarities are due to copying.
        4) The Gospels of Matthew and Luke are copied from Mark and the letters of Paul, and unique material in those Gospels was fabricated by the writers, it didn’t come from any sources that can be traced back to Jesus.
        5) The Gospel of John is also derived from the other Gospels. The similarities between John and the other Gospels are are due to the fact that the writer of John was building on the other stories.
        6) Paul had no knowledge of Jesus the person and did not even conceive of Jesus as a real person. Paul taught that Jesus was a heavenly figure who had been revealed in the scriptures by prophets.

        Scenario is basically the mainstream view. Scenario 2 is what I’m laying out. As you can see, chapters 1 and 2 deal only with point #2 here. They are a part of the case, but its not the whole case. Point #2 could be true and the other points could be false and that would fail to support the claim that Jesus never existed.

        So what I’m contending is that when all of these points are made, plus a few more (again I basically lay out 11 points in the book, each chapter, not counting the conclusion, being a point in the case). It is the culmination of those 11 points that makes the case, not any one point by itself. Just as support evolution isn’t established based on any single point, but on a set of evidence across multiple points.

        • Dr Sarah says

          R.G., I think most of this comment covers material we’re going to discuss or are discussing elsewhere, but there is one point that needs covering before we move on:

          ‘“we are discussing how the process of Christianity got started”
          Actually we aren’t, certainly not at this point in chapter one.’

          In fact, as you can see if you track that strand of the debate back, that was the part of the post where I was still discussing a point raised in the introduction. The question you were dismissing there was the question of how a group believing in a heavenly messiah would have made the leap to also believing in a crucified messiah. The reason I didn’t ask that question when I originally posted about the introduction was because I did assume we could get back to it later; however, I then realised I couldn’t remember any other points in the book where this came up, so I raised that question there so we didn’t miss it.

          If there’s another place in the book where you think that question would be better discussed, that’s fine; we can discuss it then. If not, then this post seems as good a place as any. Alternatively, we can leave it for a list of questions at the end.

          • rationalrevolution says

            “If there’s another place in the book where you think that question would be better discussed, that’s fine; we can discuss it then.”

            The chapter on Paul, chapter 9, goes into that issue.

            That issue is one that has been addressed extensively by Early Doherty, Richard Carrier, etc. There is no question that Jews, Greek, Romans, Egyptians, and others, worshiped and believed in beings from “other realms”, i.e. the heavens, who engaged in various activities. Beyond that, in the book I’m working on now I address the hundreds of figures that Greeks, Romans, and Jews believed that were thought to be real people but who in fact never existed.

            These are figures such as Orpheus, Heracles, the Sibyls, etc. These were thought to be real living people. Biographies were written about them. Writings were forged in their names. It is universally accepted that they never existed, and those are just the most well known figures. In fact there are hundreds of such figures. Whole dynasties were built on supposed relationships to such mythical figures.

            The story of Dionysus involves the birth of Dionysus in the heavens, and then the subsequent murder of Dionysus by the Titans. The Titans killed Dionysus because he had revealed the mysteries to mortals. The Greeks held that there were secret mysteries that taught that the body was material prison for the immaterial soul. Dionysus revealed the way to escape the material prison and become an immaterial immortal living in heaven. The Orphic school taught that our immaterial souls were trapped in a cycle of reincarnation into the corrupt material world, and that Dionysus had revealed the way to escape the cycle of suffering in the material world to set you soul free to live eternally in the immaterial world of heaven. For this, Dionysus was killed by the Titans.

            Orpheus is the one who supposedly recorded the accounts of all this. The prophet Orpheus too was killed by jealous worshipers. Orpheus spoke in riddles and wrote poems with hidden meaning – secret allegories that could only be deciphered by initiates into the Orphic cults.

            But of course Dionysus wasn’t real and neither was Orpheus. Yet Orpheus became the primary religious figure among Greeks and later Romans. By the 3rd century CE the religious landscape of the Roman world was largely dived int worshipers of Jesus and Orpheus. Orpheus became the face of opposition to Christianity.

            So the question of how a group would go from believing in a heavenly messiah to a crucified messiah is quite simple to address. This type of this was a core part of Mediterranean religions.

            And not only that, a part of hat being laid out here, and further in my new book, is how these believed developed in stages with different groups not having any real or direct connection to one another or understanding the other’s beliefs.

            This all started in a very Jewish setting. With a Jewish group worshiping a Jewish heavenly savior. We see exactly how this developed from the writings at Qumran. The idea of a heavenly suffering messiah comes from interpretations of scriptures, primarily Isiah, that we see taking place at Qumran. The idea of crucifixion also comes from interpretations of scriptures, in part Psalm 22, which, in translations that were popularly used at the time, talk about the piercing of the savior. This Jewish messiah was going to deliver the Jews from Roman oppression.

            But then Paul came along and took this messiah and taught that he was a universal messiah, not just a Jewish messiah. Paul was in direct conflict with others, such as James, John, and Peter about this very concept. Many of the people that Paul preached to where Greeks who had no real understanding of the Jewish basis of the cult.

            Then the Gospel of Mark was written as an allegory and was picked up by a new generation of Greeks and Romans after the First Jewish-Roman War who had no contact with any of the original cults. Their knowledge of whole whole thing came from the Gospels themselves. They weren’t a part of any community that stretched back to the original Jews who founded the cult. In fact they viewed the Jews as enemies and people who had rejected and denied Jesus and thus were people who couldn’t be trusted or relied on. They write about how the Jews totally misunderstood their scriptures and had no idea what God was talking about.

            So we had these series of developments in which writings and teachings passed from group to group without context. There never was a community of people who understood the original teachings and also adopted the later teachings. There were breaks. This is also why we see as early as the second century, so many writings about heretics who believed in a purely spiritual Jesus who had never become incarnated (Chapters 4 & 5). Those groups that taught that Jesus had never come to earth, or that if he did so it was in spirit only, were called heretics by the Romans and exterminated with extreme force.

          • Dr Sarah says

            @rationalrevolution:

            ‘The chapter on Paul, chapter 9, goes into that issue.’

            Thanks; I shall look out for that when I get there.

            ‘So the question of how a group would go from believing in a heavenly messiah to a crucified messiah is quite simple to address. This type of this was a core part of Mediterranean religions.[…] This all started in a very Jewish setting.’

            Well, if it started in a very Jewish setting (which is one thing I agree with, BTW), then what was or wasn’t a core part of Mediterranean religions wasn’t very relevant; very Jewish settings, by definition, wouldn’t have been likely to be influenced by what the Greek or Roman cultures did or didn’t do. But I think a bigger problem is that this conflicts with what you said in the introduction; that this cult supposedly believed that the material world was hopelessly corrupt and therefore the messiah would have to be an immaterial, heavenly creature who would destroy the material world. That’s quite a non-Jewish concept; precisely the sort of thing it’s hard to imagine a very Jewish community coming up with. (It would make more sense amongst Hellenised Jews who’d been influenced by Gnostic philosophies that taught this sort of spiritual-vs-material dualism.)

            ‘This all started in a very Jewish setting. With a Jewish group worshiping a Jewish heavenly savior.’

            Worshipping anything other than Yahweh is about as un-Jewish as it’s possible to get. I’d recommend you drop at least one of those two claims.

            ‘The idea of crucifixion also comes from interpretations of scriptures, in part Psalm 22, which, in translations that were popularly used at the time, talk about the piercing of the savior.’

            Again, this runs into problems with your claim that this started in a very Jewish setting; that’s exactly the sort of setting where people aren’t going to be using translations of their scriptures. They’ll use the original Hebrew, because they believe that’s how God handed it to them. But, even if we hypothesise that an otherwise Jewish group somehow ended up working from a translation of their scriptures instead of the original (and that a group who were known from an early stage for their poverty and illiteracy somehow managed to get hold of translated scriptures and find out what they said), what translation talks about ‘the piercing of the savior’?

            ‘This Jewish messiah was going to deliver the Jews from Roman oppression.’

            And, again… how did this group get from this traditional idea of the Messiah as delivering the Jews from oppression, to an idea that he had also suffered a loathed, humiliating form of punishment and execution that the Jews inextricably associated with being victims of Roman oppression?

            ‘Many of the people that Paul preached to where Greeks who had no real understanding of the Jewish basis of the cult.’

            While I disagree with most of the rest of what you said, I do agree that this was one of the key turning points in the development of the early church… just for a different reason than you. I think that this was the point at which the church headed off in its direction of seeing Jesus’s death as being a sacrifice for God’s forgiveness.

            I mean, we know that at some point early in the history of the church it started completely reinterpreting concepts such as the Messiah, Son of God, and sacrifice, investing them with meanings totally different from the meanings they had for the Jews. We also know that early in the history of the church Paul – a man who was passionate about his own interpretation of this new faith, yet showed almost no interest in what the existing church believed – put a great deal of time and effort into preaching his version of the faith to far-flung Gentile communities, and that he clashed with the existing church to at least some extent over what he thought. Which is the more logical deduction? That the two events had nothing to do with each other, but, rather, a staunchly Jewish community were the ones to reinterpret old concepts in a way so radically different from their previous interpretation by Jews? Or that the former event was caused by the latter; that the reason we got these new interpretations of who the Messiah was or what ‘Son of God’ meant was because a man with very new and different ideas was passing them on to Gentiles with a very different cultural background? I’m going with the second conclusion.

          • rationalrevolution says

            @DrSarah
            ” what was or wasn’t a core part of Mediterranean religions wasn’t very relevant; very Jewish settings, by definition, wouldn’t have been likely to be influenced by what the Greek or Roman cultures did or didn’t do.”

            This is just not true. The idea that Judaism was some truly distinct religion is a modern invention. The reality is that Judaism was very much a product of its surrounding cultures and was constantly being influenced by them. There is even a growing case that much of the Jewish bible was derived from Greek writings.

            “Jews” really were a group of Canaanites who adopted the sole worship of Yahweh around the 7th century BCE in conjunction with an Assyrian invasion. They were then of course conquered by the Babylonians and integrated a lot of Babylonian culture. The Persians then conquered the Babylonians and the Jews became vassals of the Persians, during which time they integrated many aspects of Persian religion. The Persians were then conquered by Alexander the Great in the 4th century BCE at which time Greek became the de facto language of the Mediterranean and the Jewish scriptures were translated into Greek.

            During all this time there was constant appropriation of other cultures into Judaism, and constant rivalry within Judaism about what it meant to be Jewish and what was an wasn’t acceptable regarding foreign integration. All along there were many factions of Jews who adopted many aspects of foreign cultures, which of course is a constant theme in the Jewish scriptures.

            Jewish thought through all of this time was quite diverse, and it was really only around the 3rd century BCE, after all of the conflicts with Rome, and a deep cleansing among Jews, that a form of Judaism was defined that fairly closely resembles what we think of as Judaism today, and this mostly took place among the Babylonian Jews, who had remained separate from the Roman Jews. After the rise of Christianity and the Romans oppression against Jews, many Jews sought sanctuary among the Babylonian Jews and that were much of the Talmud, etc. was produced, laying out what would become the Judaism that we know today. This of course is all a very rough summary.

            Anyway, when you look at Jewish mythology it is very, very similar to Greek mythology in many ways, especially the mythology of early history. In fact, what made the adoption of Christianity possible by the Roman empire was the ease with which Jewish and Greek mythic history was able to be reconciled.

            The Romans Christians essentially had to explain the origins and development of the world and culture via the Jewish myths in a way was coherent with Greek and Roman lore. In this they claimed that Orpheus and Moses actually were acquaintances and that had been tricked or something (there were a variety of explanations) into adopting polytheism. The claims was that everyone originally only worshiped Yahweh, but then it was Orpheus who then mislead everyone and spread the worship of false gods throughout the world.

            All of this “made sense” because much of Jewish mythology was borrowed from the same sources as Greek so the stories were almost identical. In Greek mythology there is the Deucalion flood, which kills everyone on earth except Deucalion and his wife Pyrrha, who then repopulate the world. The flood was brought by Zeus as a punishment because the king of Arcadia sacrificed a boy to honor Zeus, which is of common origin as the story of Abraham and Issac. Deucalion is told to build a boat that he survives the flood in. The son of Deucalion is Hellen, who becomes the father of the Greek people. The counterpart to Hellen in Judaism is Abraham who is a descendant of Noah and the father of the Jewish people.

            Etc., etc., I could go on and on with all of these parallels, but all of this stems from the fact that all of these religions derive from a common Mediterranean origin. Judaism was really not so different.

            “Again, this runs into problems with your claim that this started in a very Jewish setting; that’s exactly the sort of setting where people aren’t going to be using translations of their scriptures.”

            Greek translations of the Jewish scriptures were widely used among Jews. In addition there were both Hebrew and Aramaic translations and there were discrepancies even among these. The idea that these were prefect writings with no variations is just a Christian fallacy about inerrant scripture. The fact this there were several variants of these texts.

            Worshipping anything other than Yahweh is about as un-Jewish as it’s possible to get. I’d recommend you drop at least one of those two claims.

            In addition to that, we know that between the 2nd century BCE and the 2nd century CE many groups of course kept developing additional figures and so-called “second gods” that they worshiped. There is extensive evidence of this in the Qumranic writings. Judaism was not monolithic. There was contact squabbling among Jews, which is recorded in the scriptures themselves. Many Jews worshiped other deities in various ways, and even elevated others to God status, as we see directly in the writings from Qumran. Enoch, Melchizedek, archangels such a Michael and Gabriel, were all being worshiped by Jews as godlike figures around the time of Christian origins. The worship of messiahs was also prominent.

            Indeed it is known that there was in fact a supposedly “separate” cult that worshiped a coming messiah Joshua in the first century. There was a leader of this Joshua cult who tried to walk on water and cross the Jordan river around 60 CE, which was when it was believed that the end times were coming . Of course you know that Joshua just a different translation of the same name as Jesus. The Hebrew Yehoshu’a translated to Joshua via Latin and to Iesous via Greek. Iesous translates to Jesus via Latin, so Jesus is just a product of translating the name Yehoshu’a to Greek first.

            So what we’re really talking about is a 1st century cult that was worshiping a reinterpretation of the messiah Joshua, of which we know that there were in fact other first century Jewish cults worshiping a scriptural Joshua as a potential coming messiah whom they expected to come and free them from Roman oppression right before the First Jewish-Roman War.

            Anyway, I’ve gt to head out the door, but I’ll pick this up again later.

      • rationalrevolution says

        Also, to keep with the evolution analogy. One of the first parts in the case for evolution is establishing that the earth is actually billions of year old. However, of course, establishing that the earth is billions of years old doesn’t prove that evolution is true. Nevertheless, it is a very important aspect of the overall case.

        Its the same issue with the Gospel of Mark. Establishing that Mark is an ahistorical fictional allegory doesn’t prove that Jesus didn’t exist, but its still foundational to the overall case in just the same way that the earth being billions of years old is foundational to the case for evolution.

  3. db says

    OP: “[W]e do not know whether or not all of the Testimonium Flavium is interpolated. It might be, it might not be; there is significant legitimate difference of opinion on that point even among experts…”

    IMO the discussion of Josephus’ testimony and other non-Christian sources is a “Red Herring”.

    • Given Arguendo: Josephus’ testimony and other non-Christian sources are all without interpolation and are not forged.

    It is still not possible to prove that Josephus’ testimony and other non-Christian sources are independent of the Gospels (and Gospel-dependent Christian legends and informants). Therefore under standard academic historical methodology, they are not considered as attestation for the historicity of Jesus.

    Per Guignebert, Charles (1933). Jésus (in French). L’Évolution de l’humanité. synthèse collective 29. Paris: La Renaissance du livre. “Let’s admit that all the so-called pagan and Jewish testimonies [to Jesus] do not bring us any useful information on the life of Jesus, that they do not even give us the certainty that he has lived.” [Confessons donc que tous les prétendus témoignages païens et juifs ne nous apportent aucun renseignement utile sur la vie de Jésus, qu’ils ne nous donnent même pas la certitude qu’il ait vécu. —(p. 23)]

    • Secular contemporary scholars (”e.g.” Maurice Casey and Bart Ehrman) who have written a defense for the historicity of Jesus, do not resort to “Non-Christian sources” for attestation of the historicity of Jesus in their works.

    Per Lataster, Raphael (2019). Questioning the Historicity of Jesus: Why a Philosophical Analysis Elucidates the Historical Discourse. Brill-Rodopi. ISBN 978-9004397934.

    Focussing on the non-Christian sources that are available, from within around 100 years after Jesus’ death, Ehrman generally dismisses the few extant non-Christian and non-Jewish testimonies, that of Pliny the Younger, Suetonius, and Tacitus. […] Ehrman quickly discards the disputed and irrelevant Talmudic references to Jesus, which he arguably should not have even mentioned […] Ehrman also adds that “my case for the historicity of Jesus does not depend on the reliability of Josephus’ testimony”. . . . Ehrman has been very bold — though mostly fair — so far. He has effectively ruled out the sources that we objective and secular scholars might place more confidence in… —(pp. 34, 36, 38)

    • db says

      OP: “[T]here is significant legitimate difference of opinion on that point even among experts…”

      Richard Carrier asserts that per the Jewish Antiquities: “No expert opinion on the authenticity of either [Jesus] passage is citeable, if it isn’t informed by” the respective “published research on it over the last ten years.”

      • See: Carrier (16 February 2017). “Josephus on Jesus? Why You Can’t Cite Opinions Before 2014“. Richard Carrier Blogs.

    • Dr Sarah says

      3. @db: ‘It is still not possible to prove that Josephus’ testimony and other non-Christian sources are independent of the Gospels (and Gospel-dependent Christian legends and informants).’

      Josephus’s mention of James clearly isn’t gospel-derived, either directly or indirectly.

      Tacitus’s mention of Christ being executed by Pilate technically could be, but Tim O’Neill raises two good points against this: that it’s unlikely that this would be information that Christians would want to mention when discussing their sect with non-Christians, and that Tacitus’s clearly low opinion of Christians would make it unlikely that he’d use their views as his source of information anyway. It’s therefore far more likely that he got this from a source unrelated to Gospel teaching.

      • db says

        Josephus’s mention of James clearly isn’t gospel-derived, either directly or indirectly.

        Richard Carrier asserts otherwise.

        Per Carrier: “Foreword” & “Afterword” ap. Lataster, Raphael (2015). ISBN 978-1-5148-1442-0. [NOW BOLDED]

        [Per the Epistles] it is ambiguous as to whether an earthly or celestial Jesus is being referred to. The Gospels I found wholly symbolically fictional and not even interested in actual history. . . . And then I found that no other evidence can be shown to be independent of the Gospels. —(pp. xi-xii)
        […]
        There is no independent evidence of Jesus’s existence outside the New Testament. All external evidence for his existence, even if it were fully authentic (though much of it isn’t), cannot be shown to be independent of the Gospels, or Christian informants relying on the Gospels. None of it can be shown to independently corroborate the Gospels as to the historicity of Jesus. Not one single item of evidence. Regardless of why no independent evidence survives (it does not matter the reason), no such evidence survives. —(p. 418)

        • Dr Sarah says

          [db quoting Carrier] ‘All external evidence for his existence, even if it were fully authentic (though much of it isn’t), cannot be shown to be independent of the Gospels, or Christian informants relying on the Gospels.’

          So… does Carrier explain how he thinks Josephus would have got James’ execution at the hands of an overzealous Ananus from the gospels or from Christian informants relying on the gospels, given that this information is nowhere in the gospels and Carrier in fact explicitly states in other writings that Josephus’s account here doesn’t match any of the other accounts we have?

          (Carrier’s stated position on the James quote is that it isn’t fully authentic but contains a partial accidental interpolation. While this isn’t a viewpoint that stands up well to examination – see https://historyforatheists.com/2018/02/jesus-mythicism-2-james-the-brother-of-the-lord/ or http://gettingtothetruthofthings.blogspot.com/2015/10/a-response-to-richard-carriers-work-on.html – even that claim makes somewhat more sense than the claim that a story about Ananus executing Jesus’s brother is somehow derived from the gospels.)

          • db says

            does Carrier explain how he thinks Josephus would have got James’ execution at the hands of an overzealous Ananus from the gospels or from Christian informants relying on the gospels…

            Carrier responds:

            Comment by Richard Carrier—5 January 2020—per “Jesus in Josephus”. Richard Carrier Blogs. 21 December 2012.

            On the supposition (though thoroughly enough contrary to the evidence) that Josephus actually wrote “the one called Christ” in the Jesus ben Damneus story, it would derive from the Christian “brothers of Jesus” legends derived from the Gospels (in which any prominent James was often assumed to be the brother of Jesus named James in the Gospels; see the section on Hegesippus in OHJ). Hence, “Christian informants relying on the Gospels.”

            (It’s also possible Josephus confused “Brother of the Lord,” the cultic status all baptized Christians claimed, as “Brother of Jesus Christ” and so wrote it, in which case Jesus didn’t exist and the James Josephus writes about was a Christian. But it’s just as likely his Christian informants were already making that conflation for him, as we see from later sources they started to do.)

          • Dr Sarah says

            @db
            (I posted my reply to this on Carrier’s blog, but no sign of it getting through moderation as yet, so I’ll post it here as well. Ditto for the other comment you quoted from him below.)

            Hi, Richard! Two questions about this:

            1. How do you feel that Josephus, or an informant of Josephus, would plausibly have derived the specific point of James being one of the people executed illicitly by Ananus on this occasion from any existing story of James?

            2. What evidence do you have that ‘Brother of the Lord’ was ‘the cultic status all baptized Christians claimed’?

            Thanks.

  4. db says

    OP: “Regardless of whether Jesus existed, we can at least conclude that John did.”

    Per Allen, N.P.L. (2015) Clarifying the Scope of Pre-Fifth-Century C.E. Christian Interpolation in Josephus’ Antiquitates Judaicae (c. 94 C.E.). Unpublished Philosophiae Doctor thesis, Potchefstroom: North-West University. available online @ http://dspace.nwu.ac.za/handle/10394/14213

    [N]o reliable extra-biblical/scriptural accounts exist to support the historical existence of, inter alia, Jesus of Nazareth, James the Just or John the Baptist. —(p. ii)
    […]
    5.8 Chapter Five Summary
    The following points, especially when taken collectively, mitigate against the BP [Baptist Passaage] being in any way an authentic Josephan text:
    • If Josephus wrote the BP then it follows that he also:
    01. contradicts the gospels as regards the date of John the Baptist’s activities;
    02. contradicts the gospels as regards the reason for John the Baptist’s arrest;
    03. shows remarkable familiarity and theologically advanced insights into Christian-based baptism rites;
    04. contradicts his statements about the range and scope of Jewish-based cults in the Holy land due to failure to mention any other Jewish sect even remotely connected with a Baptist cult or Christianity 312 ; [This assumes that the TF is an interpolation.]
    05. contradicts his avowed position on the dangers of Jewish religious upstarts;
    06. describes an impossible/contradictory situation at the fortress at Macherus;
    07. contradicts his previously stated reasons for Gods’ divine vengeance against Antipas;
    08. seriously disrupts the literary flow of his narration;
    09. fails to mention John the Baptist in his earlier work and in the same context (i.e. the BJ); and
    10. fails to mention John the Baptist in his table of contents (AJ).
    —(p. 361–362)

    • db says

      Per Doudna, Gregory L. (2019). “Is Josephus’s John the Baptist Passage a Chronologically Dislocated Story of the Death of Hyrcanus II?”. In Pfoh, Emanuel; Niesiolowski-Spanò, Lukasz (ed.). Biblical Narratives, Archaeology and Historicity: Essays In Honour of Thomas L. Thompson. Bloomsbury–T&T Clark. pp. 119–137. ISBN 978-0-567-68657-2.

      This article proposes that Josephus’s ‘John the Baptist’ passage in Antiquities is a chronologically displaced story of the death of Hyrcanus II, the aged former high priest, by Herod the Great in either c. 34 or 30 BCE. As a matter of method the Gospels are set completely to one side and the focus is solely on analysis of the Josephus passage.

      The passage in Antiquities is in Josephus’s language and style, yet at the same time the passage reads as an insertion into pre-existing text, like an ancient excursus or footnote set into a text that would read perfectly smoothly without it (Schwartz 2013: 106–9). This description does not mean the passage is an interpolation by a later Christian scribe. For a number of reasons the passage is unlikely to have come from a later Christian forger, not the least of which is that Josephus’s John the Baptist is not in any way portrayed as Christian. Rather, the insertion of a story into preexisting narrative is a well-known phenomenon in the composition process of Josephus. But this composition process results in precisely the kind of passage that can be subject to Josephus making a chronological mistake, in this case attaching an undated story from a source to the wrong Herod. —(pp. 119–120)

    • Dr Sarah says

      @db #4: Sigh. OK, I shall probably regret this, but I’ll bite:

      1 & 2: he does indeed. Since I’m an atheist and you seem, from your previous comments here, to believe that Jesus never existed, I’ll take it we’re both fully on board with the idea that at least some of what’s in the gospels is incorrect, so I’m not really seeing the problem here.
      3. Christian-based baptism rites? Where the heck does he get the idea that a rite espoused by a Jew who wasn’t part of the Christian movement and in fact predated it somehow counts as Christian just because Christians would later adopt such rites?
      4. Contradicts which statements?
      5. Contradicts which position?
      6. This one actually is a valid point, but seems to me to be satisfactorily explained by http://peterkirby.com/a-conjectural-corruption-of-josephus.html (see also the post of Kirby’s that I linked to in the text of my post, above). In brief, the problem seems to be that a textual corruption of Josephus that gives us a slightly but crucially inaccurate translation of the previous comment about Macherus.
      7. How is ‘some of the Jews thought’ supposed to contradict the fact that Josephus himself thought something different?
      8. Only if you find asides particularly disruptive. I think the relevant question here is whether Josephus avoided asides; were they notably not a feature of his style, or something?
      9 and 10: doesn’t sound particularly strange for what was, after all, an aside, and likely therefore to be seen by Josephus as something of borderline importance.

      • db says

        The details of Allen’s argument is a moot point at this time, given that Doudna’s assertion per his article completely negates the view that Josephus ever wrote about a first century CE John the Baptist (a figure featured in gMark).

        In general, Allen’s argument indirectly lends support to Doudna’s analysis that the John the Baptist passage in Josephus’s Antiquities does not seem to belong where it is located,

        • The most likely implication of Doudna’s analysis is that gMark was compososed post 93 CE, However Doudna does not address this issue in his article.

  5. db says

    OP: “It’s perfectly possible to write allegorical stories about a real character.”

    True, but at some point there must be a “Habeas Corpus” for this putative “real character” and the gospel texts are not going to suffice for any scholar using standard academic historical methodologies.

    Per Carrier (30 September 2019). “Did Jesus Exist? Craig Evans’ Post-Debate Analysis“. Richard Carrier Blogs.

    [W]e discount the Gospels as at all reliable on standard historical methodologies that would produce the same result in every other field:
    • They’re late, post-dating any evident witness known to still be alive;
    • and written in a foreign land and language;
    • by unknown authors of unknown credentials;
    • who cite no sources, and give no indication they had any sources;
    • and never critically engage with their material but only credulously (e.g. they never discuss conflicting accounts or reasons to believe their information, unlike rational historians of the era);
    • and about whose texts we have no reactions, critical or otherwise—whatever people were saying about these Gospels when they came out, we never get to hear, not for many more decades, by which time we see those reacting have no other information to judge them by;
    • all the earliest of which texts just copy their predecessors verbatim and change and add a few things;
    • and which contain in every pericope patent implausibilities or wholly unbelievable stories (from a random guy splitting the heavens and battling the devil and wandering out of the desert and converting disciples to instantly abandon their livelihoods after but a few sentences, to mystically murdering thousands of pigs, miraculously feeding thousands of itinerants, curing the blind, calming storms, and walking on water; from having a guy arguing against Pharisees with arguments that actually were the arguments of the Pharisees, to depicting a trial and execution that violates every law and custom of the time; and beyond);
    • which stories have obvious and rather convenient pedagogical uses in later missionary work;
    • and often emulate and “change up” the prior myths of other historically dubious heroes, like Moses and Elijah;
    • and often contain details that can only have been written a lifetime later (like the Sermon on the Mount, which was composed in Greek after the Jewish War; or prophecies of Jerusalem’s destruction, likewise; or Mark’s emulation of the passion of Jesus ben Ananias or Luke’s confused cooption of The Antiquities of Josephus; and so on).
    • and for none which do we have any prior corroboration.
    There is no field of history—absolutely none—where such sources as these would be trusted as history at all.

    Biblical scholars do have a solution for this issue. They just lower the standards by which they measure a source’s reliability!

    Per Lataster, Raphael (2019). Questioning the Historicity of Jesus: Why a Philosophical Analysis Elucidates the Historical Discourse. Brill-Rodopi. ISBN 978-9004397934.

    Historians cannot lower the standards by which they measure a source’s reliability . . . even if this is what Biblical scholars actually do. That would be illogical and inconsistent; and its practice all but proves bias. Scholars could then proclaim any source reliable. —(p. 137)

    • db says

      A protest often heard from biblical scholars is that historians cannot apply the same rigorous standards to ancient sources as they do to modern ones or they would not be able to say very much about ancient times. Those who believe “standards must be lowered” for ancient sources fail to realize that—given the limitations of ancient sources—the types of questions historians can ask of them must be more limited.

      • Per Gager, John G. (1974). “The Gospels and Jesus: Some Doubts about Method”. The Journal of Religion 54 (3): 244–272. doi:10.1086/486389.

      [R]igorous historical method has been subordinated to religious and theological concerns. With dogged regularity, the desire to reach authentic Jesus material has led questers to sacrifice methodological rigor or to minimize the difficulties posed by the sources. —(p. 244)

    • Dr Sarah says

      @db, #5:

      [from Carrier] ‘There is no field of history—absolutely none—where such sources as these would be trusted as history at all.’

      I recognise that Carrier has a PhD in history whereas the sum total of my qualifications in the subject is… one O-level, grade B. So I could be wrong about this. However, from my distant memories of my history classes (and, to be fair, we had a dreadful teacher and I was singularly bored by the subject at the time and paying it minimal attention, so I’m not the best source here…), I recall that in fact historians do use propaganda pieces from a time period as part of their evidence about it. Not because they tell us anything reliable at all about the events they describe… but because they tell us something about what at least some people were claiming, and believing, at the time. And that can actually be a valuable contribution to what we know about that time period. (So, to pick an example I do happen to know something about, in the time of Mary Queen of Scots a propaganda picture was produced of which the message was that she was behaving in a way considered, at the time, sexually inappropriate. This tells us nothing about whether she actually was acting in such a way, but it does tell us that public opinion was being stirred up against her; and that’s useful information for our understanding of the political climate at the time and for why Mary ultimately lost her throne and had to flee into exile.)

      With that in mind… is there anything we can learn from the gospels if we read them from the point of view of ‘these are sources of information about what members of this cult believed in its early decades’? Well, one important thing we learn is that, within less than a century of Jesus’s supposed life and death, his supporters certainly seemed to believe that he had lived on earth and had been sentenced to death by a named person. Now, it’s notable that even Carrier (who is, of course, one of the leading proponents of the Jesus mythicism theory) seemed unable to come up with any examples of situations where people had reached this sort of belief about a mythical person within this sort of time frame. (‘On the Historicity of Jesus’, chapter 6, section 7.) So, while the gospels are fairly hopeless at giving us reliable details about this Jesus’s life, their existence does provide a useful piece of evidence in favour of Jesus’s existence.

      • db says

        his [sc. Jesus] supporters certainly seemed to believe that he had lived on earth and had been sentenced to death by a named person.

        Carrier responds:

        Comment by Richard Carrier—5 January 2020—per “Did Jesus Exist? Craig Evans’ Post-Debate Analysis”. Richard Carrier Blogs. 30 September 2019.

        Lots of mythical heroes were “killed” by named persons.

        But more importantly, this is simply an attempt to create a new reference class. But doing so cannot ignore other reference classes Jesus belongs to. I have a whole section on this in OHJ (Ch. 6.5). Thus, even if, say, the reference class of “persons claimed a lifetime later to have been killed by a historical person” had a rate of historicity of 99%, Jesus still belongs to a reference class (highly mythologized persons) with a rate of historicity of roughly 33%, so after iteration the prior probability still ends up at 33% (as explained and shown in that section in OHJ).
        This is the problem with trying to turn an uncorroborated claim into a mere frequency argument, that ignores data pertaining to frequency (argument by arbitrary selection of frequency characteristics). That’s simply not a logically valid maneuver.

        If one could adduce actual evidence (not speculations or assumptions) that ancient mythographers wouldn’t do such a thing, then one could get the likelihood of that evidence to be lower on ahistoricity than historicity and then use this as evidence for historicity. But we have no such evidence in this case. Ancient mythographers appeared completely comfortable incorporating historical persons in their myths.
        Indeed, Christians were especially fond of doing this (Herod killing the Nazarene babies; the Acts of Peter having Nero watch Simon fly magically through the sky; the Tertullianic Acts of Pilate having Tiberius convert to Christianity), and there are obvious and clear political reasons to choose the persons they did (Caiaphas and Pilate, representatives of the two world orders the Christians wanted to represent as the “archons of this eon” coming to an end). So it’s simply not improbable at all. Similarly, Eastern Christianity had Jesus killed by completely different historical persons, a hundred years prior to Pilate (OHJ, Ch. 8.1).

        I should add, BTW, that the timeframe argument is also refuted by the fact that so many myths were piled onto Jesus in that same timeframe. I have a whole section on that point, too (OHJ, Ch. 6.7). Proving the opposite conclusion: Christians were not at all dissuaded from inventing all sorts of fabulous things about Jesus in a mere lifetime, including his magically killing thousands of pigs, Herod murdering hundreds of babies, the sun going out for three hours over the whole earth, hordes of undead saints wandering into Jerusalem, Jesus appearing after death not in visions but as a walking, talking reanimated corpse hanging around for a month and having regular dinners with the Disciples and then flying into outer space before a dozen or more witnesses.

        We have many other precedents for just this kind of rapid invention, in the Cargo Cults and Luddite examples I analyze in OHJ, in the early history of Mormonism, in the Salem witch trial documents, in the Roswell myth, and so on. So it simply isn’t true that rapid development like this is improbable. And our estimates of probability expectations have to be based on the actual data, not things we make up in our heads; and on the actual context (e.g. an era lacking universal literacy etc.), not contexts wholly alien (e.g. an era with photography, newspaper archives, etc.).

        • Dr Sarah says

          @db:
          (As with the other comment of Carrier’s that you passed on above; I did reply to this on his blog, but as yet it has not come through moderation, so I’ll post my reply to Carrier here as well. I’ve edited the last part slightly for clarity; otherwise, this is what I posted on his blog that is currently awaiting approval.)

          ‘Lots of mythical heroes were “killed” by named persons.’

          Sorry, I should have been clearer; I meant a named person who was known to have lived relatively recently (i.e. not centuries ago/in the Age of Heroes).

          ‘But more importantly, this is simply an attempt to create a new reference class.’

          I was actually thinking of it as one of the other items that gets multiplied into the probability equation. (Sorry, been a while since I read OHJ in full so I’m hazy on what you called those; I think ‘consequent evidence’ was the term you used.) So the question here, if I have this right, would be ‘What are P(e|h) and P(e|¬h) for someone about whom multiple written works existed within about a century of his alleged death?’

          ‘This is the problem with trying to turn an uncorroborated claim into a mere frequency argument, that ignores data pertaining to frequency (argument by arbitrary selection of frequency characteristics).’

          Sorry, I’m afraid I don’t follow that.

          ‘If one could adduce actual evidence (not speculations or assumptions) that ancient mythographers wouldn’t do such a thing, then one could get the likelihood of that evidence to be lower on ahistoricity than historicity and then use this as evidence for historicity. But we have no such evidence in this case. Ancient mythographers appeared completely comfortable incorporating historical persons in their myths.’

          I think I might not have been clear enough about my point. My issue wasn’t with the general idea of incorporating some sort of historical person, but with the timescale.

          In OHJ 6.7, you state that euhemerised deities/heroes were normally set centuries in the past (either because they weren’t euhemerised until centuries after they first appeared as mythical beings, or because stories of their physical existence projected centuries back to the supposed Age of Heroes). If I’m understanding this statement correctly, it means you know of no examples in which the legends about a euhemerised mythical figure set the stories about this figure’s supposed existence on earth at a time only decades, rather than centuries, prior to the writing of the story.

          So, that’s evidence. While it obviously isn’t enough evidence for anything as sweeping as ‘ancient mythographers wouldn’t do such a thing’, it is evidence that they seem to have been unlikely to do such a thing. This means that stories (however obviously embellished) about a figure who was supposedly walking the earth only decades before the stories were written would be less likely to happen on mythicism than on historicity.

          ‘So it simply isn’t true that rapid development like this is improbable.’

          I’m not questioning whether rapid legendary development in general is improbable; I’m saying that based on what you said in 6.7 of OHJ, it seems that rapid development of euhemerisation is improbable. Not impossible, but improbable.

          ‘And our estimates of probability expectations have to be based on the actual data, not things we make up in our heads’

          Sure. So, in this case, the data is the existence of several fairly detailed writings claiming that a particular person existed within a timeframe that, although approximate, can be estimated to be less than a century before the stories were written.

          How many stories do we know to have existed in that sort of time and culture that fitted that description? Out of those, how many do we know to be about euhemerised mythical individuals rather than real people? (If what you’ve said in OHJ 6.7 is correct, then the second figure is currently zero, unless you know of any examples that have been discovered in the last few years since you wrote OHJ. I’ve no idea what the first figure would be, but I assume you could come up with some sort of rough idea.)

          Those figures would be enough for us to get a rough estimate of P(e|h) and P(e|¬h) for the existence of writings claiming person X existed within this sort of timeframe, thus giving us a consequent probability that could be put into the overall equation along with the other consequent probabilities.

  6. rationalrevolution says

    Dr Sarah,

    As I alluded to in my prior reply, your error here seems to be in trying to take everything in a single bite. The book is laid out in a methodical way that builds the case piece by piece. You’re looking at the first piece and declaring that the first piece doesn’t prove the case all by itself, therefor its all nonsense. That, of course, is not how any such investigation is done, whether criminal, historical or scientific.

    In addressing chapter one one needs to address the content and conclusions of chapter one. And I do realize that, while I tried to write this book for a general audience, it really does require significant familiarity with the Bible and mainstream biblical scholarship, which is a shortcoming on my part. I should perhaps have given more background. So I think a legitimate criticism of the book is that it doesn’t provide enough background for lay readers, which, BTW, is my target audience, so that’s certainly a significant issue.

    So, having read all of the Gospel of Mark yourself prior to reading this is certainly helpful. Having read several mainstream assessment of the Gospels is also helpful.

    What one should get from chapter one is not that “Jesus didn’t exist”, but rather an understanding that the traditional and mainstream assessment of “what the Gospel of Mark is” doesn’t make sense. It certainly helps to know what mainstream scholars think the Gospel of Mark is, which I admit I don’t do a thorough enough job establishing. (I briefly address it early in the chapter). But certainly mainstream scholars claim that the Gospel of Mark is a record of oral accounts of the life of Jesus, written down by an unsophisticated scribe who was just basically jotting down notes that he was told from a community of Jesus worshipers. Any symbolism in the narrative comes from the community. The writer is almost immaterial, he makes no contribution to the content, he’s really just recording the oral traditions, and these oral traditions were developed by people who knew directly of Jesus and passed down his teachings and actions, all of which took place around the late 20s CE.

    So the purpose of this chapter is to demonstrate why this understanding of Mark cannot possibly be true. The case I put forward is that Mark is a sophisticated writer who was developing a complex allegorical narrative, that must have been developed entirely after the First Jewish-Roman War, and thus did not originate from any community, but rather originated purely from the mind of it’s writer. This can be better illustrated with an example from the book’s website here: http://www.decipheringthegospels.com/examples.html

    Reflecting on those examples can be helpful. There we can see how some of the most well established authorities on this topic assess these scenes. We have Bart Ehrman stating that he’s certain that “something” really happened at the temple. We have J.P. Meier, a conservative Catholic, making essentially the same exact case as Ehrman. That’s the standard approach to understanding this material. How does the approach that I’ve laid out compare to that in your mind?

    What do you think about the fact that the “leading authorities” on this subject, haven’t recognized the fact that this scene is actually derived from literary references? What do you think about the fact that none of the authorities who advocate for the historical reality of this event even acknowledge or address the relationship between the scene and the passage from Hosea 9? Do you think its not relevant? Do you think that the fact that the leading scholars who advocate for the historical truth of this passage are unaware of, or fail to acknowledge, the relationship between this scene and Hosea 9 is material? If it is material, and the leading authorities on the issue fail to address it, what does that tell you about the reliability of their conclusions?

    No individual chapter in this book is intended to make a giant leap. Its about taking steps on a ladder. What do you learn, and what perspective do you gain, if anything, from chapter one?

    • rationalrevolution says

      For a bit more on the temple cleaning scene see: http://www.rationalrevolution.net/blog/?p=40

      Notice there that the analysis of the scene by E.P. Sanders is almost identical word for word to Bart Ehrman’s passage. Note that E. P. Sander’s account was published before Ehrman’s.

      But again, this should really be the focus of assessing chapter one. Not evaluating whether chapter one proves Jesus didn’t exist, which isn’t even a claim being made, but rather does understanding these intertextual relationships provide new insight into how to understand the Gospel of Mark and to evaluate its relationships to historical reality?

    • db says

      rationalrevolution @7 says: “mainstream scholars claim that the Gospel of Mark is a record of oral accounts of the life of Jesus, written down by an unsophisticated scribe who was just basically jotting down notes that he was told from a community of Jesus worshipers. Any symbolism in the narrative comes from the community. The writer is almost immaterial, he makes no contribution to the content, he’s really just recording the oral traditions, and these oral traditions were developed by people who knew directly of Jesus and passed down his teachings and actions, all of which took place around the late 20s CE.”

      • Vorster, Willem S. (1993). “The Production of the Gospel of Mark : An essay on intertextuality”. HTS Teologiese Studies. 49 (3): 385–396. doi:10.4102/hts.v49i3.2499. [NOW BOLDED]

      In this essay I will discuss the importance of the unsolved problem of the production of the Gospel of Mark. To achieve my goal, I will first pay attention to current views on the origin of the material. —(p. 386)
      […]
      One can safely say that there has been little reflection on the role of the person who produced the Gospel, except for the descriptions I have mentioned, namely collector, composer, redactor and author. How one should picture Mark editing tradition in written or oral form by changing a word here and there, adding a sentence or two, rearranging the order of material, putting the traditional material into a narrative frame and joining separate units or episodes — as redaction critics make us believe — is difficult to imagine.

      There is much more to the production of a text than traditional views would allow. As long as the Gospels are perceived mainly from the perspective of their growth, the process of production is blurred. What is needed is serious reflection on the production of texts from the perspective of what happens when other texts, whether oral or written, are included in or absorbed by a new text. The traditional approach is anti-individualistic because the driving force behind the Gospels is the anonymous community. —(p. 389)

      rationalrevolution @7 says: “So the purpose of this chapter is to demonstrate why this understanding of Mark cannot possibly be true. The case I put forward is that Mark is a sophisticated writer who was developing a complex allegorical narrative . . . and thus did not originate from any community, but rather originated purely from the mind of it’s writer.”

      • Vorster ibid.

      I have elsewhere argued that Mark’s use of the Old Testament is totally different from that of Matthew or Mark . . . Allusions to and quotations from the Old Testament are usually absorbed into Mark’s story in such a manner that, except for a few cases where he specifically mentions the origin of the quotation, the allusions and quotations form part of the story stuff. They are so embedded into the story that, if it were not for the references in the margins and a knowledge of the Old Testament, the reader would not have noticed that Mark uses an allusion or a quotation (see Mk 15:24). This is best seen in Mark’s story of the passion of Jesus. —(p. 391)
      […]
      One of the inferences one should make from the use of the Old Testament in the Gospel of Mark is that the author created a new story with the aid of intertextual codes that helped him to communicate his own point of view. The Old Testament quotations and references formed part of the new story that Mark created in order to convince his readers of his point of view concerning Jesus and the implications of Jesus’ life, works and words for the prevailing situation. —(p. 392)

      • db says

        Per the above Vorster quote, Mark’s use of the Old Testament is totally different from that of Matthew or Mark

        • This is a typo in the source and should read: “Mark’s use of the Old Testament is totally different from that of Matthew or Luke”

        See: Vorster, Willem S. (1999) [1981]. “The function of the use of the Old Testament in Mark”. In Botha, J. Eugene (ed.). Speaking of Jesus: Essays on Biblical Language, Gospel Narrative, and the Historical Jesus. BRILL. p. 153. ISBN 90-04-10779-7.

    • Dr Sarah says

      @rationalrevolution, #7:

      ‘You’re looking at the first piece and declaring that the first piece doesn’t prove the case all by itself, therefor its all nonsense.’

      That’s quite a misrepresentation of what I actually said. The only reason I was focusing on the fact that the first piece doesn’t prove the case was because you had put heavy emphasis on that piece to the point where you did seem to think that it – at the very least – provided strong evidence for your case. As a logic flaw, that did need addressing, and so I addressed it.

      ‘But certainly mainstream scholars claim that the Gospel of Mark is a record of oral accounts of the life of Jesus, written down by an unsophisticated scribe who was just basically jotting down notes that he was told from a community of Jesus worshipers.’

      Curious as to your references for this? From the reading I’ve done, I don’t recall ever coming across a particular opinion one way or the other as to whether Mark himself played a part in shaping the traditions he passed on (except of course for the traditional church belief that Mark was merely writing down what he remembered Peter teaching, but that doesn’t fit your description of a community passing down traditions). What authors have you read who’ve presented Mark as ‘an unsophisticated scribe’ who did nothing but record pre-existing traditions while playing no part in shaping them?

      ‘This can be better illustrated with an example from the book’s website here: http://www.decipheringthegospels.com/examples.html’

      OK… let’s do this. Hold onto your hats, because this is going to be a long one.

      In this essay, you argue that Mark 11:12 – 21 is a fictional allegory based on Hosea 9. Let’s break down these two passages and compare. Summary of main points in the Markan passage:

      • Jesus, hungry, sees a fig tree but finds it’s not in the right season to give fruit. He therefore curses it never to bear fruit again.
      • Jesus, on entering the temple, mounts an attack on the people taking part in commerce there (overturning tables, driving people out, refusing to let people carry merchandise within the court) while quoting a line from Isaiah and one from Jeremiah.
      • The chief priests and teachers of the law were afraid of the response he was getting from the crowd and started planning to kill him.
      • On their way back, they see the fig tree that Jesus cursed has withered.

      Now, here is a summary of the main points in the Hosea passage:

      • Israel is ordered not to rejoice, due to their behaviour
      • Israel is analogised to a prostitute and accused of leaving God (this is part of a long ongoing rant within Hosea on these themes)
      • Israel’s food and wine supply will fail
      • They won’t remain in their own country
      • The tribe of Ephraim shall return to Egypt
      • They’ll eat unclean food in Assyria
      • Their sacrifices won’t please God and will be defiling
      • Egypt shall gather them, Memphis shall bury them
      • Their possessions/valuables will be overgrown with nettles and thorns
      • Their sin causes them to be hostile to the prophet, whom they accuse of being a fool/mad
      • A repetition that God will punish them
      • God compares his initial finding of the Jewish people to finding ‘grapes in the wilderness’ or ‘the first fruit on the fig tree’.
      • There’s a reference to the time the Jews joined with local people to worship Baal of Peor (original incident in Numbers 25)
      • The tribe of Ephraim will become infertile, and even the ones who have children will die/suffer bereavement
      • Comparison of Ephraim in the past with a young palm tree*
      • Ephraim must now ‘lead out his children for slaughter’.
      • Another reference to infertility (this time to miscarriage)
      • Their evil deeds started in Gilgal
      • God will drive them out of his house and love them no more
      • The image of a dried-up root and bearing no fruit is used as a metaphor for infertility
      • Ephraim will be rejected and become wanderers among the nations.

      *The palm tree is in the translation I got when I pulled up the NRSV translation of this chapter on BibleGateway, as you said that was the translation you used; when I looked, I realised the line is translated differently in the version you quote in that webpage and in your book, so I’m not sure why you’ve got a different translation there. Still, not important for present purposes, I guess.

      Anyway, out of that long list of points from Hosea 9 you’ve picked a few that match to some extent with the Markan passage:

      • Fig tree/fruit/withered root
      • Lack of respect for authority figure sent by God (the prophet in Hosea, Jesus in Mark)
      • Driving people out of the temple for behaviour that’s considered wrong

      (and have also stated that, as well as these elements, the order in which they are presented is necessary to make the association with Hosea, which is strange because these elements in gMark are not presented in the same order as in Hosea, so I honestly don’t know what point that was meant to be making).

      And, based on these few elements existing in both Hosea and gMark, you’ve concluded that the gMark passage is ‘clearly based’ on the Hosea passage and that this means that ‘this scene is not based on any real event that ever took place… None of this actually ever happened; this isn’t a historical event.’

      Now, that is such a leap of logic that I’m honestly at somewhat of a loss as to what to say about it. No, we cannot ‘clearly’ or definitely conclude anything of the sort. All we’ve got there is a few points of superficial similarity that could just as well have been coincidental. About the best we can say is that Mark might have based his passage on the Hosean passage. If he did, then quite frankly I’d have to say he did a rotten job of it, since the themes behind even those basic points of similarity are different. But I don’t see any reason why the similarities couldn’t be either a) a coincidence, or b) based on Mark or one of his predecessors in the story chain deciding to highlight an existing story about driving people out of the temple with a symbolic detail – which might or might not have been inspired by the superficial similarity to Hosea – about a cursed and withered fig tree.

      Personally, I don’t have strong opinions one way or the other on whether the temple scene really happened or was a later invention. However, you’re using a few points of partial similarity between this passage and a passage in the Jewish scriptures to try to demonstrate that this scene is fictional, and you’re acting as though this is enough to conclude, definitely, that it is. That’s an extremely weak argument, and it comes nowhere near to providing enough evidence to reach the conclusion you’re trying to draw.

      • rationalrevolution says

        “As a logic flaw, that did need addressing, and so I addressed it.”

        There was no logic flaw, you misunderstood the point. The point is showing how the narrative is constructed and the way that symbolism and scriptural references are used by the author. It had nothing at all to do with claiming that either figure, Jesus or John, did not exist. Your claim was, “But John was a real person, so all of this is nonsense,” which completely fails to grasp what’s being presented.

        “I don’t recall ever coming across a particular opinion one way or the other as to whether Mark himself played a part in shaping the traditions he passed on”

        db provided some examples in this thread.

        “except of course for the traditional church belief that Mark was merely writing down what he remembered Peter teaching, but that doesn’t fit your description of a community passing down traditions”

        This is address is a later chapter. I talk about it in depth. Certainly the tradition view was that “Mark” was passing on an account from Peter. That view has been overwhelmingly rejected by modern scholars because its clearly unsupportable by the obvious evidence. However, what most modern scholars have done, again remember that 95% of these people are Christian theologians, is present an explanation for the origin of the Markan materiel that basically arrives at the same point as the claim that the material came from Peter. This is very common in biblical scholarship. When it becomes apparent that major assumptions are no longer supportable, they come up with Rube Goldberg explanations that arrive at the same basic point.

        This is the case with Mark. Once it was obvious that Mark couldn’t have been based on an account from Peter, the next most popular explanation was that Mark was based on oral tradition from “the time of Peter”. Thus, Mark isn’t based on a single account of that specific person, but its still account based on stories from the community that Peter belonged to.

        The point here is showing that that cannot possibly be true either. In fact, the best explanation of the Gospel of Mark is that its an allegorical story that was developed after the First Jewish-Roman War by a follower of Paul. Of course that’s what chapters 1 and 2 are about, laying out evidence for that.

        ” which is strange because these elements in gMark are not presented in the same order as in Hosea, so I honestly don’t know what point that was meant to be making”

        Certainly they are. Fig Tree – House of God – Root is the pattern in both the scene from Mark and Hosea 9. That should be obvious.

        “No, we cannot ‘clearly’ or definitely conclude anything of the sort. All we’ve got there is a few points of superficial similarity that could just as well have been coincidental.”

        Are you kidding me? Firstly, as is a part of the point of chapter 1, this isn’t an isolated case. This same type of scriptural reference is found dozens of times in the Gospel of Mark. That’s the point, scene after scene follows these patterns. This isn’t just something I’m making up, this is well established in the scholarship. Literally hundreds of books have been written on this aspect of Mark, all I’m doing here is adding a few additional cases, such as this one, to the long list of such scriptural references.

        And again, the whole point is that early Christians themselves recognized many of these references and interpreted them as proof of prophecy fulfillment. These very scriptural references are exactly what led to the adoption of Christianity.

        S this obviously is key to the entire book. If you don’t accept that the Gospel of Mark is constructed from scriptural references then of course nothing in this book will make any sense. However, how you can deny that is beyond me, and furthermore, its something that is widely accepted by biblical scholars of all stripes, from fundamentalists to mythicists.

        So if you’re going to deny the relationship between the Gospels and the scriptures you’re basically going to be on your own, denying black and white evidence that is accepted by essentially every biblical scholars in the world. Why is beyond me.

        All I’m pointing out in the temple cleansing scene is a new case that haven’t been widely recognized previously, but which fist the pattern of dozens of other widely recognized cases. This example is not much different than the universally recognized relationship between the Crucifixion scene and Psalm 22.

        Mark:
        13 Seeing in the distance a fig tree in leaf, he went to find out if it had any fruit. When he reached it, he found nothing but leaves, because it was not the season for figs.
        15 On reaching Jerusalem, Jesus entered the temple area and began driving out those who were buying and selling there.
        20 In the morning, as they went along, they saw the fig tree withered from the roots.

        Hosea 9
        10 when I saw your fathers, it was like seeing the early fruit on the fig tree.
        15 Because of their sinful deeds, I will drive them out of my house.
        16 Ephraim is blighted, their root is withered, they yield no fruit.

        Mark:
        24 And they crucified him, and divided his clothes among them, casting lots to decide what each should take.
        29 Those who passed by mocked him, shaking their heads
        34 At three o’clock Jesus cried out with a loud voice, ‘Eloi, Eloi, lema sabachthani?’ which means, ‘My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?’

        Psalm 22:
        1 My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?
        7 All who see me mock at me; they make mouths at me, they shake their heads
        18 they divide my clothes among themselves, and for my clothing they cast lots.

        “But I don’t see any reason why the similarities couldn’t be either a) a coincidence, or b) based on Mark or one of his predecessors in the story chain deciding to highlight an existing story about driving people out of the temple with a symbolic detail – which might or might not have been inspired by the superficial similarity to Hosea – about a cursed and withered fig tree.”

        I believe most people would agree that the most parsimonious interpretation of the evidence is that the writer of Mark derived this narrative as a literary reference to Hosea 9, especially in light of the dozens of other examples of the same exact type of references throughout the Markan narrative.

        You’re now doing what many Christian theologians do. You’re coming up with more complex and unlikely scenarios to explain evidence that is far more simply explained in other ways. By far the most straight forward explanation for the evidence laid out is that the Gospel of Mark is a story that was fabricated by a single individual. That is, indeed, the point of chapter 1.

        Certainly you can make a case against that. But you have not done that. You’ve simple said, “I don’t believe it”, but you haven’t offered a coherent explanation of the evidence that is more likely that the explanation I’ve put forward.

        You really believe that this is better explained as “chance” than intention?
        Mark:
        13 Seeing in the distance a fig tree in leaf, he went to find out if it had any fruit. When he reached it, he found nothing but leaves, because it was not the season for figs.
        15 On reaching Jerusalem, Jesus entered the temple area and began driving out those who were buying and selling there.
        20 In the morning, as they went along, they saw the fig tree withered from the roots.

        Hosea 9
        10 when I saw your fathers, it was like seeing the early fruit on the fig tree.
        15 Because of their sinful deeds, I will drive them out of my house.
        16 Ephraim is blighted, their root is withered, they yield no fruit.

        And that goes for all of these examples. You’re basically going to argue that all of these apparent relationships between the scriptures and the story are all just random chance? I don’t even know what to say that that…

        And ultimately the point you’re trying to get to is what? That we simply can never know or understand why or how the story was written, so we just have to assume that its based in facts?

        What I’m putting forward is an analysis of the story within the context in which is was written, following a catastrophic war and the death of the spiritual leader Paul, using well established methods of intertextual analysis.

        And your saying, “Nah, we can’t figure anything out, its just a random story!”

        That doesn’t even make sense.

        • db says

          db provided some examples in this thread

          It appears that the consensus changed over the 1950’s to 1970’s period in viewing the Markan author as an independent editor. Vorster’s point beyond this, again challenges the contemporary consensus view (1993) by asserting that the Markan author is writing intertextual OT fiction on top of Jesus traditon.

          • See full article @ “Gospel of Mark (intertextuality) at 04:59, 17 October 2019 (Content attribution: (CC BY 4.0) Willem S. Vorster (1993)”. Wikipedia.

          [I]n the late 1950’s with the rise of the so-called redaction critical approach to the Gospels (see Marxsen 1959 & Peabody 1987). The material in the Gospel was increasingly regarded as edited tradition — an idea which goes far back, but one that had only recently developed. Although the Gospel as a whole came into focus, the interest was in the redaction of tradition. This resulted in detailed investigations concerning tradition and redaction in the Gospels. In the case of Mark it was extremely difficult to determine exactly what could be regarded as tradition and what could not, because of the absence of copies of the presumed sources. On the basis of style, regular occurrence of certain words and phrases, views that were peculiar to the specific Gospel, so-called seams or breaks in the text and other features, scholars reached a certain degree of consensus about redaction and tradition in the Gospel of Mark.

          Mark’s (theological) emphasis was determined by interpreting his redaction of tradition. At least a certain amount of creativity — however limited was ascribed to the redactor. Mark’s own contribution to the story of Jesus came into focus, despite the fact that he was soon described as a conservative redactor (see Pesch 1976). The emphasis which Wrede (1969) had put on Mark’s creativity in 1906 was newly appreciated.

          In circles where Mark was regarded as a composer, he received more credit for what he had achieved, and attention was given to the Gospel message as a whole. It was, however, only in the late 1970’s that scholars started paying serious attention to Mark’s Gospel’as a narrative, and to Mark as an author or author/narrator and to the Gospel as an autonomous text. —(p. 388)

        • Dr Sarah says

          @rationalrevolution:

          With regard to your first paragraph: If you’re going to come up with your own paraphrases of what I say, please don’t put them in quote marks; it’s misleading.

          Moving on to discussing your theory about the Temple scene:

          ‘[me] “ which is strange because these elements in gMark are not presented in the same order as in Hosea, so I honestly don’t know what point that was meant to be making”
          [you] Certainly they are. Fig Tree – House of God – Root is the pattern in both the scene from Mark and Hosea 9. That should be obvious.’

          That, R.G., was a bait-and-switch. And, in fairness, it’s a) almost certainly unintentional and b) minor as such things go. But it’s still a bait-and-switch and that needs to be clarified. Here, with emphasis mine, is what you wrote on the webpage:

          ‘We can see in the Gospel text that the cursing of the fig tree, the driving out of people from the temple (house of God), and the hostility toward Jesus are all related elements that are drawn from Hosea 9. All of these elements and the order in which they are presented in the Gospel called Mark are necessary to make the association between Hosea 9 and the narrative.’

          So, in your original writing, you were quite clear that ‘the hostility towards Jesus’ was one of the elements that you felt was necessary to make the association. In the section of Hosea 9 that you quoted, the line you highlighted as equivalent was v8, which occurs before the other elements; in gMark, it occurs after the cursing of the fig tree and the driving people out of the temple. Therefore, the elements you listed there were not presented in the same order as Hosea as they were in gMark.

          Now, from what you said above it seems you’ve now changed your mind and left ‘hostility towards Jesus’ off the list of matching elements. Obviously that’s your prerogative, but if that’s what you’re doing then

          a) be explicit about the fact that you’ve changed your mind; don’t just come out with an altered version of what you’re claiming and call it ‘obvious’ that that’s what you mean when it wasn’t what you originally stated

          and b) the fact that you’ve changed your idea about which points indicate an obvious link should give us at least some pause here. You’ve now decided it’s ‘obvious’ that the hostility-towards-Jesus theme isn’t a key part of the links you include, or at least that the positioning of that theme within the story order isn’t necessary. But that didn’t seem to be obvious to you when you wrote the original page; at that time, you listed that point as one of the necessary elements and stated that the order of these elements was also necessary. When you change your mind like that about what’s obvious/necessary for the link, that might be a clue that the links aren’t quite as ‘obvious’ as you think, and that at least some cherry-picking (even if quite unintentional) is going on here in order to highlight just those points you want for your theory.

          ‘Firstly, as is a part of the point of chapter 1, this isn’t an isolated case. This same type of scriptural reference is found dozens of times in the Gospel of Mark. That’s the point, scene after scene follows these patterns.’

          Unfortunately, R.G., several of the scenes you pick out follow precisely this pattern; namely, that you pick out a few surface similarities, ignore huge differences between the passages, and declare this to be sufficient proof that the second passage was clearly a) based on the first one and b) therefore fictitious. I’m fine with the idea that some of Mark’s gospel was derived from other sources – that wasn’t even news to me – but you do need to make more of a case for each individual such claim than you’ve made for this one or for at least some of your other claims.

          ‘So if you’re going to deny the relationship between the Gospels and the scriptures you’re basically going to be on your own, denying black and white evidence that is accepted by essentially every biblical scholars in the world.’

          I’m a bit staggered by the fact that, faced with my statement that there were other, more likely, explanations for the link you think you’ve spotted for this particular passage, you’ve leaped to a claim that I’m denying any relationship at all between the gospels and the scriptures. That colossal assumption of yours does not, for the record, represent my beliefs, and I see nothing that I’ve said that would indicate that it does.

          ‘By far the most straight forward explanation for the evidence laid out is that the Gospel of Mark is a story that was fabricated by a single individual.[…] Certainly you can make a case against that. But you have not done that.’

          Obviously I hadn’t done that at that point, because I hadn’t yet had time to finish the further posts I said I was going to make about Chapter 1. I have now got the next two posts up, and by all means critique them, but it’s a trifle premature of you to talk as though I’d decided to make the above post and leave it at that when in fact I’d clearly said I was going to make further posts on the chapter.

          ‘You really believe that this is better explained as “chance” than intention?’

          R.G., I’m going to look at your theory about how Mark wrote this story, and about what would have to happen during the composition process if your theory is correct. Let’s break this down here.

          • Mark decides to write a story to illustrate his belief that God is punishing the Jews for not heeding the message of harmony with the Gentiles.
          • Looking for examples to illustrate this, he picks a passage about God punishing the Jews… for committing idolatry. (To put this into cultural context; Judaism has historically had concerns about associating with Gentiles precisely because of concerns that the Gentiles would lead Jews away from following their laws, and the biggest concern about this has been the risk of Jews being led into idolatry. So, Mark hasn’t just picked a passage about God punishing the Jews for a different thing, he’s picked a passage about God punishing the Jews for essentially the opposite thing.)
          • Not only this, but the passage he’s chosen contains a reference (v10) to a time (Numbers 25) when friendship between the Jews and the neighbouring Gentiles led the Jews into worshipping the local god, Baal, thus bringing down God’s anger and punishment upon them. So Mark, looking for a good passage to illustrate his belief that Jews should be more friendly with Gentiles, has picked one that refers to a time when the Jews did get friendly with the Gentiles and it was an absolute disaster.
          • Whatever. Mark’s got his passage and he can start writing his analogy about Jesus throwing people out of the Temple for sinning against God. What wrong will he decide to portray these people as committing, in order to illustrate the fact that they’re being punished for committing it? According to your theory, he believes the problem is Jewish treatment of Gentiles; however, having chosen the Hosea reference, he might want to go further with that theme and portray them as turning away from God/committing idolatry. Which should he choose as the example sin here? He chooses… commerce. In his allegorical story, the people are being thrown out of the Temple for buying, selling, and carrying items. Well, that came out of left field.
          • Mark also needs to portray Jesus as making some sort of strong statement to drive the point home, whatever the point now is. He’s chosen to base his story on a passage from Hosea; the obvious thing would be to emphasise this by picking a quote from there about God’s punishment. Or perhaps he could choose a line about treating Gentiles better, since that’s what he wants his message to be in the first place; yes, that would also make perfect sense. What will he go for? Well, apparently his ideal choice is a line from Isaiah and a line from Jeremiah, creating a statement that ties in with the commerce theme that came out of left field before but has nothing to do with either his original theme or the theme of the Hosean passage he chose.
          • Mark also wants (according to your initial version) to get in the idea of hostility towards Jesus, to fit in with the image of hostility towards the prophet in the original Hosea passage. To represent these lines from Hosea – which refer to the prophet being considered a fool/a maniac, to him being a watchman, and to snares awaiting him on his paths – he makes no mention whatsoever of Jesus being considered a fool or a maniac, watching over anyone, or finding a snare on his path. Instead, he refers to the priests worrying that Jesus has too much influence over the crowd, which is pretty much the opposite of what’s happening with the prophet in Hosea 9. He also places this mention at a different point in the narrative.
          • Still, at least he gets the fig tree/withered root analogy in there. So I guess that’s something.

          Is it possible that someone would make all those decisions in composing an allegory? Yes. It certainly wouldn’t make him the skilled writer you’ve claimed him to be – the above would actually be a muddled mess – but there have always been plenty of people capable of writing muddled messes, so that’s not enough to rule it out as a possibility. Yes, that might have been how Mark composed this story.

          But what you’re trying to claim is that this is such a simple, obvious, likely explanation that it’s clearly what happened, to the point that we shouldn’t even take any other possibility seriously (including the possibility that Mark, or one of his predecessors in the story chain, noticed a passing resemblance to a line about Hosea in a story that had been passed down to them, and thus embroidered it with the lines about the fig tree; that seems just as feasible to me). Is it any clearer at all now why I don’t feel able to embrace this explanation to the extent that you do?

  7. db says

    OP: “Therefore, the protagonist [figure] in gMark – Jesus – is also fictional.”

    This is the mainstream position of scholars who do not hold that gMark was written as a biographical/historical treatise.

    • Thompson, Thomas L. (20 April 2009). “Historicizing the Figure of Jesus, the Messiah”. The Messiah Myth: The Near Eastern Roots of Jesus and David. Basic Books. p. 3. ISBN 978-0-7867-3911-0.

    Whether the gospels in fact are biographies—narratives about the life of a historical person—is doubtful. Their pedagogical and legendary character reduces their value for historical reconstruction. New Testament scholars commonly hold the opinion that a historical person would be something very different from the Christ (or messiah), with whom, for example, the author of the Gospel of Mark identifies his Jesus (Hebrew: Joshua = savior), opening his book with the statement: “The beginning of the good news about Jesus Christ, God’s son.”

    • Godfrey, Neil (26 November 2018). “A Response to Dr Sarah, Geeky Humanist, on the Jesus Question”. Vridar.

    I think most critical NT scholars would not accept that any of our canonical gospels describe a historical Jesus. I have never heard any scholar accept that claim except apologists. The gospels are uniformly said by critical NT scholars to be “mythical” or “christological” narratives that overlay a historical person, and that it is only be peeling back and applying various criteria or other methods that we can somehow find a historical figure.

    • db says

      Godfrey, Neil (17 November 2010). “The acts and words (and person?) of Jesus as Parables in the Gospel of Mark”. Vridar.

      [Per Mark’s Gospel] Jesus cannot even be said to be a true human in this Gospel. He is introduced to readers as being possessed by the Spirit of God . . . Readers are informed that from this moment Jesus is now the Son of God. This Spirit then casts him out into the wilderness where he engages with Satan and is sustained by angels. So the reader knows that Jesus is not a man, but God in a man. No-one else in the narrative ever knows this.

      Jesus stilling the storm demonstrates to readers that Jesus is the manifestation of the power of God at creation when the forces of chaos were subdued with a word, a theme that is repeated in several subsequent narratives (Exodus, Elisha, Jonah) and appears several times in the Psalms and Job.

      Peter’s “confession” that Jesus is the Christ [Messiah] is on a par with the understanding of the demons . . . Jesus soon afterwards calls him Satan when it is apparent that he misconstrues the Christ [Messiah] as a conquering king instead of a suffering servant.
      […]
      The Gospel narrative proceeds to follow well-recognized patterns of numerology, ‘topography, geography, travels, spatial markers and personifications.’ These are not the normal cues indicative of historical narratives. They speak of fiction. If such patterns are found in a story that is structured along lines very similar to the structures found in Hellenistic novels, poems and plays rather than those that more usually belong to works of history (even ancient historiography) — and I believe that is the case with Mark’s Gospel — then surely it is foolishness to even think the Gospel can be mined for anything “historical” at all.

    • db says

      Carrier (22 December 2019). “Tim O’Neill & the Biblical History Skeptics on Mythicism”. Richard Carrier Blogs.

      Jesus in Mark never behaves like a human: even when he isn’t doing works of wonder, he is acting very strangely compared to any real person; moreover, he is a supernatural being from the very start, parting the very heavens, defeating the Devil, and he continues as such in every subsequent chapter. If you count up incredible events, and divide by number of words, there actually is no greater miraculism in any other Gospel. The rate of the amazing per thousand words is the same, or as near enough as makes no statistically significant difference.

  8. db says

    OP: “This chapter lists multiple examples of Markan stories that Price believes to have been derived from Jewish scriptures…”

    Some of theses examples (or similar) are presented by other scholars as well, in regards to the intertextual production of the Gospel of Mark.

    Per Vorster, Willem S. (1993). “The Production of the Gospel of Mark : An essay on intertextuality”. HTS Teologiese Studies. 49 (3): 385–396. doi:10.4102/hts.v49i3.2499.

    One of the significant things about the use of the Old Testament in Mark is that he had no respect for the original context of the quotations and allusions to Old Testament writings in his text. The story of John the Baptist at the very beginning of the Gospel proves the point. In the first place the very first quotation (Mk 1:2-3) does not come from Isaiah the prophet, as Mark asserts. It is a composite reference to Exodus 23:20, Malachi 3:1 and Isaiah 40:3 which he connects to Isaiah the prophet. The quotation is taken out of context and worked into his story of John and Jesus in order to show the relationship between the two. The beginning of the Gospel does not prove the fulfillment of the Old Testament, it characterises John as the predecessor of Jesus. Only at a later stage does the reader realize the resemblance between the apocalyptic John and the apocalyptic Jesus. —(pp. 391–392)

    Per Price “Chapter One: Deciphering the Gospel Called Mark”:

    So by looking at the literary allusions in the opening scene of Mark, we see very complex foreshadowing and messaging. We are told in Mark 1:2 that a messenger is preparing the way for the Lord. We are told via the book of Malachi that the Lord will come to the temple, which foreshadows the temple cleansing scene in Mark 11.

  9. db says

    OP: “If we’re assuming Mark was writing an allegory about a real (from his perspective) heavenly being, why should we assume he wouldn’t write an allegory about a real earthly being?”

    • Yes it is likely that Mark’s Jesus figure is based/derived on a real earthly being attested in Josephus’s Jewish War—”Jesus son of Ananias”. Likewise it is likely that Mark’s “John the Baptist” figure is based/derived on a real earthly being attested in Josephus’s Antiquities of the Jews. But that does not mean that JtB met JsA on the Jordan and performed a baptism, any more than the movie “Abraham Lincoln: Vampire Hunter” means Lincoln hunted Vampires.

    Per Godfrey, Neil (2 April 2019). “Much More Fully Informed History for Atheists — A Scholarly Introduction to the Two Jesus Parallels”. Vridar.

    Now, in what I expect will be my final post demonstrating the scholarly status of discussion about the relationships between the two Jesus figures, the one in Josephus’s Jewish War and the other in the synoptic gospels, specifically the Gospel of Mark, I will copy the preface by Mahlon Smith to the publication of Ted Weeden’s thesis in Forum, Westar’s academic journal, Fall 2003. . . . Here is Smith’s preface to Weeden’s thesis on the parallels, from pages 133-134:

    . . .[Ted Weeden now conclude’s] that Josephus himself created the story of Jesus son of Ananias and that Mark used his account. If this is the case, Mark could have been composed no earlier than 80 ce. That argument is presented here in an epilogue to the original paper.

    As Weeden notes, other scholars have previously called attention to similarities between the gospels’ depiction of Jesus of Nazareth and Josephus report about Jesus son of Ananias. But this is the first detailed case for the evangelists direct dependence on the latter story using the classic Greek rhetorical convention of creative imitation (mimesis).

    • db says

      why should we assume he wouldn’t write an allegory about a real earthly being?

      • The point is that Mark is allegorizing the teachings of Paul (who often allegorizes the Old Testament). And Mark then putting words on the lips of ”Jesus son of Ananias” just as does a movie puts words on the lips of “Abraham Lincoln” about vampires.

      The claim that Mark is allegorizing the teachings of Paul is addressed in Price’s chapter 2: “Mark’s Jesus is Based on Paul”, where he presents the scholarship on Mark allegorizing the teachings of Paul.

      Per Lataster, Raphael (2019). Questioning the Historicity of Jesus: Why a Philosophical Analysis Elucidates the Historical Discourse. Brill-Rodopi. ISBN 978-9004397934.

      Clearly, if Mark merely and primarily allegorised Paul’s writings, the traditional theories about the Historical Jesus — which borrow heavily from the Gospels rather than Paul’s letters — are in quite a bit of trouble. . . . Paul also allegorises the Old Testament, which is basically fictional, it seems that Mark’s account of Jesus, which forms the basis for later accounts of Jesus, is constructed from allegories of allegories of fictions. —(p. 257)

  10. db says

    Dr Sarah @2 says:

    Well, if it [sc. Christianity] started in a very Jewish setting (which is one thing I agree with, BTW), then what was or wasn’t a core part of Mediterranean religions wasn’t very relevant; very Jewish settings, by definition, wouldn’t have been likely to be influenced by what the Greek or Roman cultures did or didn’t do.

    rationalrevolution @2, replying to Dr Sarah, says:

    This is just not true. The idea that Judaism was some truly distinct religion is a modern invention. The reality is that Judaism was very much a product of its surrounding cultures and was constantly being influenced by them. There is even a growing case that much of the Jewish bible was derived from Greek writings.

    Per Carrier (22 December 2019). “Tim O’Neill & the Biblical History Skeptics on Mythicism”. Richard Carrier Blogs. [NOW BOLDED]

    Syncretism always transforms what it borrows, and creates an amalgam, in which only what is wanted is kept.
    […]
    [Whereas the evolution of a local religion is not actual syncretism between a local and another, usually dominating society’s religion.] Baal simply means Lord. It was a generic name for God among all the Canaanite tribes. Yahweh is simply the local name of the local Baal of one of the tribes of the Canaanites. The Jews were not syncretizing some other native religion of their own with Canaanite religion. The Jews actually were Canaanites. They then wrote stories claiming to be from somewhere else to justify their genocide of neighboring Canaanite tribes. Yahweh keeps many of the features of Baal and his lore because Yahweh was Baal. He was not “merged” with Baal.
    […]
    For a correct example of syncretism, you should look at how Judaism was transformed by exposure to Zoroastrianism: before it had no end-times apocalypticism, no Satan as the enemy of God, no resurrection (at all much less at the end of days), and no flaming hell where sinners are tormented after death, nor even much of any idea of the dead living in heaven. The original Jewish belief was of the dead remaining forever asleep, their souls only capable of awakening by witches; and only the rarest of heroes got to live in heaven, and not by dying, but by being taken up while still alive (like Elijah and Enoch and in some legends Moses). But after becoming subject to the Persians, Judaism adopted all those things from Persian Zoroastrianism, after modifying them to suit Jewish ideas and sensibilities and contexts. There are no “leftovers.” There is only what they borrowed, and how they changed it by merging it with their local ideas.
    […]
    [Per the viewpoint] that the Gospels share no narrative elements with other dying-and-rising tales. That’s been thoroughly refuted under peer review by Richard Miller, and others. See OHJ, “Element 47,” for example (in Chapter 5). The most similar storyline is of Romulus, for whom there were still publicly enacted passion plays, which Mark 15-16 tracks aspects of in outline. Mark simply combines this with emulations of the legend of Jesus ben Ananias and scriptural and Judaic material. But you can’t say the similarities with Romulus and other pagan translation stories are just a coincidence. Again, they borrow what they like, change and add what they want, and leave out what they don’t. Thus explaining why there are no dildos and dismemberments and other borrowed ideas from Osiris myth, for example: those narrative details were the least palatable to Christians when Mark wrote. They had no use for them.

    But that of course all relates to Mark’s construction of a myth. . . . [not] the original sect’s beliefs
    […]
    These narrative details in Mark did not likely exist in Christianity before his creative application. Christianity began, as we can plainly see in Paul, with a much more esoteric and mystical dying and rising savior myth. It had more in common with the cosmic myths of Osiris, which were advocated by a priesthood whom Plutarch tells us also derided the vulgar myths about dildos and dismemberments as convenient falsehoods.

    Understanding what the Gospel authors are doing with analogous myths in the constructing of their own requires reading what I actually say about this in OHJ (particularly Chapter 10). . . . Likewise understanding how the general tropes of mystery religion surrounding Judaism at the time influenced their construction of a mystery religion of their own—a process not the same as what’s going on in the Gospels—requires actually reading what I separately say about that (particularly in Chapter 4).

    • db says

      Per Mark’s construction of a myth vs. the original sect’s beliefs:

      “Misquoting Mythicism: Syncretism and Dying/Rising God Parallels w/ Richard Carrier”. YouTube. Godless Engineer. 20 December 2019.

      [@time 00:45:35] There’s the Gospels—which is different from the origin of the religion—we have to keep those two separate,
      • so the Gospels were clearly written by educated Greeks so we know they know what any educated Greek would know.
      […]
      [@time 00:46:09] So what they [sc. historicists] want to say is that [per the origin of the religion] well this can not have been influenced at the beginning [by educated Greeks] right. So the origin of the story can’t have come from this influence because
      • it came from these poor Galilean illiterate Jews. How could they possibly have known all this stuff?

      Carrier in the video subsequently opines on the cosmopolitan aspects of first century CE Galilee.

      • Chancey, Mark A. (2005). Greco-Roman Culture and the Galilee of Jesus. Cambridge University Press. ISBN 978-1-139-44798-0.

      [Herod Antipas’s] rebuilding of Sepphoris and establishment of Tiberias allowed the [Roman] client king to demonstrate his enthusiasm for the mingling of Greek, Roman, and local cultures that was taking place throughout the Levant. . . . [exposure to pagan cities and their Greek and local deities and demigods] stood only a very few miles away, such as [at] Scythopolis and Hippos, and many Galileans would have known something of the pagan rituals that took place there. —(pp. 221–222)

      • Cappelletti, Silvia (2007). “Non-Jewish Authors on Galilee”. In Zangenberg, J.; Attridge, H. W.; Martin, D.B.. Religion, Ethnicity, and Identity in Ancient Galilee: A Region in Transition. Mohr Siebeck. pp. 69–82. ISBN 978-3-16-149044-6.

      Strabo is aware that Galilee had a mixed population . . . The sources seem to ignore the Hellenistic history of Galilee, its relations first with the Seleucid kingdom and then with the Hasmoneans. —(p. 80)

  11. db says

    Dr Sarah @2 says:

    [For Jews] Worshipping anything other than Yahweh is about as un-Jewish as it’s possible to get.

    rationalrevolution @2, replying to Dr Sarah, says:

    [W]e know that between the 2nd century BCE and the 2nd century CE many groups of course kept developing additional figures and so-called “second gods” that they worshiped. There is extensive evidence of this in the Qumranic writings. Judaism was not monolithic. There was contact constant squabbling among Jews, which is recorded in the scriptures themselves. Many Jews worshiped other deities in various ways, and even elevated others to God status, as we see directly in the writings from Qumran. Enoch, Melchizedek, archangels such a Michael and Gabriel, were all being worshiped by Jews as godlike figures around the time of Christian origins. The worship of messiahs was also prominent.

    Indeed it is known that there was in fact a supposedly “separate” cult that worshiped a coming messiah Joshua in the first century. There was a leader of this Joshua cult who tried to walk on water and cross the Jordan river around 60 CE, which was when it was believed that the end times were coming . Of course you know that Joshua just a different translation of the same name as Jesus. The Hebrew Yehoshu’a translated to Joshua via Latin and to Iesous via Greek. Iesous translates to Jesus via Latin, so Jesus is just a product of translating the name Yehoshu’a to Greek first.

    So what we’re really talking about is a 1st century cult that was worshiping a reinterpretation of the messiah Joshua, of which we know that there were in fact other first century Jewish cults worshiping a scriptural Joshua as a potential coming messiah whom they expected to come and free them from Roman oppression right before the First Jewish-Roman War.

    • One of the most relevant questions of the historicity Jesus is: Did a group of Jews prior to Paul, e.g. Philo, worship/revere a celestial second-god with similar attributes as those Paul attributed to his celestial Jesus, his Christ lord, his second-god?

    Per Boyarin, Daniel (2010) [2004]. Border Lines: The Partition of Judaeo-Christianity. University of Pennsylvania Press. ISBN 0-8122-0384-4. [NOW BOLDED]

    I think, that [Jewish] worship in the incarnate Logos is a novum, a “mutation,” . . . introduced by Jesus people, but the belief in an intermediary, a deuteros theos [i.e. second-god], and even perhaps binitarian worship was common to them [sc. Jesus people] and other Jews. —(p. 119)

    Per Lataster, Raphael (2016). “Review Essay: Bart Ehrman and the Elusive Historical Jesus”. Literature & Aesthetics 26 (1): 181–192. ISSN 2200-0437.

    [Bart] Ehrman argues that since there are Jewish texts that outlaw angel worship, there must have been Jews worshipping ‘non-God’ divine beings. . . . Ehrman even refers to the Son of Man of 1 Enoch as the “cosmic judge of the earth”, and acknowledges that some considered him to be the Messiah, and worshipped him ([How Jesus Became God] pp. 66-68). He also gives a nod to ‘Wisdom [personified]’ and ‘Logos [personified]’, and admits that Philo of Alexandria describes his Logos as divine, as God’s first born. Ehrman even realises that the Tanakh made it very easy for Jews to incorporate similar ideas from the Ancient Greeks (such as the Wisdom figure appearing in Proverbs 8, and Genesis 1’s ‘creative Logos’). All this only bolsters the claims . . . that all the elements needed to create Christianity, without a HJ [Historical Jesus], were already present in Judaism. —(p. 183)

    Per Lataster, Raphael (August 2019). “Questioning Jesus’ HistoricityThe Bible and Interpretation.

    [T]here were Jews who expected a Celestial Messiah who would bring abut somewhat of a spiritual victory; which makes sense as the poor Jews would have no hope of defeating the mighty Roman Empire, and most could not access the Temple. Philo even, directly or indirectly, connects this figure, his Logos, with the name ‘Jesus’. For more on all this, please read Questioning the Historicity of Jesus.

    Cf. Lataster, Raphael (2019). Questioning the Historicity of Jesus: Why a Philosophical Analysis Elucidates the Historical Discourse. Brill-Rodopi. ISBN 978-9004397934.

  12. db says

    Dr Sarah @2 says:

    [Jewish] people aren’t going to be using translations of their scriptures. They’ll use the original Hebrew, because they believe that’s how God handed it to them. But, even if we hypothesise that an otherwise Jewish group somehow ended up working from a translation of their scriptures instead of the original (and that a group who were known from an early stage for their poverty and illiteracy somehow managed to get hold of translated scriptures and find out what they said), what translation talks about ‘the piercing of the savior’?

    rationalrevolution @2, replying to Dr Sarah, says:

    Greek translations of the Jewish scriptures were widely used among Jews. In addition there were both Hebrew and Aramaic translations and there were discrepancies even among these. The idea that these were prefect writings with no variations is just a Christian fallacy about inerrant scripture. The fact this there were several variants of these texts.

    Per Brodie, Thomas L. (2004). The Birthing of the New Testament: The Intertextual Development of the New Testament Writings. Sheffield Phoenix Press. ISBN 978-1-905048-03-8.

    [Per] Luke-Acts: several of its general features reflect the Greek version of the Old Testament (LXX), so much so that Luke—Acts has been described as a mimesis or literary imitation of the LXX (Pliimacher 1972), and as a continuation of the LXX (Sterling 1992: 352-63). —(p. 85)

    • Justin Martyr reads as prophecy ‘the piercing of the savior’ from the LXX “Book of Psalms”.

    Per Miroslav Marcovich (2011). “Dialogus 96.2–97.4″. Iustini Martyris Apologiae pro Christianis. Iustini Martyris Dialogus cum Tryphone. Walter de Gruyter. p. 237. ISBN 978-3-11-092423-7. [NOW FORMATTED]

    Καὶ ἐν ἄλλοις πάλιν λόγοις Δαυὶδ εἰς τὸ πάθος καὶ τὸν σταυρὸν ἐν παραβολῇ μυστηριώδει οὕτως εἶπεν ἐν εἰκοστῷ πρώτῳ ψαλμῷ-
    [LXX Psa 21:17] Ὥρυξαν χεῖράς μου καὶ πόδας μου.
    [LXX Psa 21:18] Ἐξηρίθμησαν πάντα τὰ ὀστᾶ μου’αὐτοὶ δὲ κατενόησαν καὶ ἐπεῖδόν με.
    [LXX Psa 21:19] Διεμερίσαντο τὰ ἱμάτιά μου ἑαυτοῖς, καὶ ἐπὶ τὸν ἱματισμόν μου ἔβαλον κλῆρον.

    TRANSLATION: [Chap. xcvii (97). Other predictions of the cross of Christ]

    David in the twenty-first Psalm thus refers to the suffering and to the cross in a parable of mystery: ‘They pierced my hands and my feet; they counted all my bones. They considered and gazed on me; they parted my garments among themselves, and cast lots upon my vesture.

    Cf. Psa 22:16–18

    • It is likely that the Markan author made the same reading as did Justin Martyr.

    • db says

      Dr Sarah says: “a group who were known from an early stage for their poverty and illiteracy somehow managed to get hold of translated scriptures and find out what they said”

      This is a conflation of Paul, who bragged about the money he obtained and the Markan author (an expert Greek scribe) who was likely affluent. With the original sect whose resources are not actually known. Yes they took Paul’s money, but even rich people take free money.

  13. db says

    Dr Sarah @2 says [NOW FORMATTED]:

    [W]e know that at some point early in the history of the church it started completely reinterpreting concepts such as the Messiah, Son of God, and sacrifice, investing them with meanings totally different from the meanings they had for the Jews.

    We also know that early in the history of the church Paul – a man who was passionate about his own interpretation of this new faith, yet showed almost no interest in what the existing church believed – put a great deal of time and effort into preaching his version of the faith to far-flung Gentile communities, and that he clashed with the existing church to at least some extent over what he thought.

    • Which is the more logical deduction?

    That the two events had nothing to do with each other, but, rather, a staunchly Jewish community were the ones to reinterpret old concepts in a way so radically different from their previous interpretation by Jews?

    Or that the former event was caused by the latter; that the reason we got these new interpretations of who the Messiah was or what ‘Son of God’ meant was because a man with very new and different ideas was passing them on to Gentiles with a very different cultural background? I’m going with the second conclusion.

    Per Lataster, Raphael (2019). Questioning the Historicity of Jesus: Why a Philosophical Analysis Elucidates the Historical Discourse. Brill-Rodopi. ISBN 978-9004397934.

    [E]very crucial aspect of the best cases against historicity, and for agnosticism and mythicism, is already accepted in mainstream scholarship. That is not to say that all – or even a majority – of scholars accept all of them, but that each of these components is held to by a significant number of mainstream scholars, and even Christians. In other words, these sceptical theories may not be so ‘fringe’ or ‘unthinkable’ after all.

    Example:

    – Pre-Christian Judaisms were very diverse, and much is still unknown about them.
    – Pre-Christian Jews believed in multiple realms, and heavenly counterparts.
    – Pre-Christian Jews searched and reinterpreted the old scriptures for contemporary guidance and prophecy.
    Pre-Christian Jews believed in a divine and celestial Messiah/Christ.*
    – Pre-Christian Jews believed in a suffering, dying, and rising messiah.
    – Pre-Christian Jews required and developed spiritual solutions to the physical problems caused by the inaccessibility/destruction of the Temple.
    – Early Christians reinterpreted the old scriptures and perceived Jesus as a divine, suffering, problem-solving Messiah.
    – The Epistles – especially Paul’s – say little to nothing about a Historical/Earthly Jesus, and show little to no awareness of the Gospels.
    – The Epistles – especially Paul’s – describe a Celestial Jesus communicating from Heaven.*
    – Paul depicts Jesus as being killed by celestial demons.
    – Paul’s writings are influenced by Pagan ideas, and by Philo (or sources Paul and Philo share in common).
    – Paul’s stated sources for Jesus are the old scriptures and revelations.
    – Paul is himself an unreliable source.
    – Paul’s writings were cherished by ‘heretics’ and later edited by the ‘orthodox’ to make the existence of the Gospel Jesus more obvious.
    – There are no authentic pre-Gospel references to Jesus having any biological siblings.
    – Early Christianity has much in common with the secretive mystery religions.
    – The case for Jesus’ historicity effectively rests upon the canonical Gospels.
    – The Gospels post-date the Epistles, especially Paul’s.
    – The Gospels and later documents tend to ‘flesh out’ the story.
    – The Gospels’ Jesus has much in common with purely mythical figures.
    – The Gospels are unreliable, filled with supernatural and mundane fictions.
    – Current use of the Criteria of Authenticity is very flawed.
    – The later Gospels build on Mark, the first Christian document to unambiguously situate Jesus on Earth, in recent history.
    – Mark allegorises Paul’s writings.*
    – Mark allegorises – directly and indirectly – the Old Testament.
    – Mark is significantly based on other Jewish writings.
    – Mark is significantly based on Pagan writings.
    – Mark and the other Gospel writers fabricated much of their Gospels.
    – Positing hypothetical sources underlying the Gospels is illogical, unnecessary, and diverts attention from extant sources.
    – The Christian extrabiblical sources are of little use.
    – The non-Christian extrabiblical sources are of little use.
    – The best evidences for Jesus’ historicity are inauthentic.
    – In light of the state of the sources, it is possible that Jesus did not exist.

    The three asterisked points “demonstrate that the Celestial Jesus theory is reasonable, and alludes to an organic development from already-existing Jewish beliefs” (Lataster, pp. 460–461).

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